From: D S Byrne <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
To: Multiple recipients of list <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
Subject: Concealed unemployment in US?
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Both the OECD and various postmodernist European leftists (their politics
are respectable left - I'm thinking of Claus Offe etc) argue that advanced
industrial economies have a permanent surplus population which is no
longer required even as a reserve army of labour. The origins of this
account lie in a parallel drawn between productivity gains in agriculture
since the late 1700s and recent productivity gains in manufacturing
productivity. When challenged by the reality of 'the great American jobs
machine' and the existence of virtual full employment in the US, albeit
with a base of low pay, they argue that this is concealed unemployment and
represents no more than workfare. I think this is wrong and that what we
are seeing is a process of the internalization of combined and uneven
development, what Goran Therborn has called 'the Brazilianization of
advanced capitalism'. A key empirical demonstration of this latter
argument depends on the rates of profit obtained from low wage sectors. My
understanding is that rates of profit in low paying sectors in the US
economy are very high - I know this is true for Health although of course
this is a sector with internal divisions (although - am I right here -
only Physicians have high pay within it). Any info and / or views on this
matter ? Note that European economies generally have much higher rates of
formal unemployment than the US, although, with the exception of the UK
which seems to have the worst of both systems, this is associated with
good job protection and high rates of wage substitution benefits for those
with citizenship status.

David Byrne
Dept of Sociology and Social Policy
University of Durham
Elvet Riverside
New Elvet
Durham DH1 3JT

0191-374-2319
0191-0374-4743 fax

David Byrne wrote:

>Both the OECD and various postmodernist European leftists (their politics
>are respectable left - I'm thinking of Claus Offe etc) argue that advanced
>industrial economies have a permanent surplus population which is no
>longer required even as a reserve army of labour. The origins of this
>account lie in a parallel drawn between productivity gains in agriculture
>since the late 1700s and recent productivity gains in manufacturing
>productivity. When challenged by the reality of 'the great American jobs
>machine' and the existence of virtual full employment in the US, albeit
>with a base of low pay, they argue that this is concealed unemployment and
>represents no more than workfare. I think this is wrong and that what we
>are seeing is a process of the internalization of combined and uneven
>development, what Goran Therborn has called 'the Brazilianization of
>advanced capitalism'.

I don't think that the low paying jobs in the US can be seen as concealed
unemployment - this is a fantasy.  These people are working although most
European would not consider this employment a job, given the conditions
under which most Americans work (lack of security, lack of inusrance, lack
of vacations, etc).

The Brazilianization thesis is new to me but I don't think that is is
apporpriate either.

Instead, I believe that we are seeing the so-to-speak downside of the
development of post-industrial society. (I can't go into all the details
here but my observations are based on an exmaination of data and discussions
of wage trends in the US)  This downside is the displacement of of low
skilled or unskilled (non-college educated) workers and even some college
educated workers (more specifically, the lower tiers of mental and the upper
tiers of manual hieraching in manufacturing) from industry - with high
median wage and less extreme polarization of wages - to services, with a low
median wage and a far more extreme polarization of wages.

This displacement has many sources/causes.  Two which I feel are of
partricualr importance are the newest forms of computer based automation and
offshore manufacturing.  Whatever the causes, the result is an attack on
middle income groups in the United States (the disappearance of the middle
class thesis runs through much of the literature on wages, etc).

But, this raises a problem - if the middle class is shrinking/disappearing ,
who will provide the mass consumption to complete the Regulationist's
'virtuous ciricle", i.e. the linking of mass production and mass
consumption.  My sense is that this linking may be becoming increasing
unnecssary as we move away from mass production (or Fordist) models of
industrial organization to post-Fordist models of customized production and
what Kenney and Florida call "micro-mass" consumption where producers can
still generate substantial profits on far lower volumes.  (I am referring to
Kenney and Florida's tenative outline of what they call Fujitsuism, as an
alternative to the Fordist regulation, at the end of their book BEYOND MASS
PRODUCTION - unfortunately, I can't lay my hands on the book at this time
but I believe this was the discussion in the last chapter).

Hence, post-industrial societies may, in fact, have a far greater
ploarization than industrial societies as middle class jobs are eliminated
through automation and export and mass consumption becomes far less
important in sustaining industry.

I am still in the process of thinking through these things but my sense is
that industrial society may in fact, be a brief historical interlude where
the mass of society was able to experience rising levels of consumption and
post-industrial society may more closely resemble an agricultural society
(even under conditions of capitalist agriculture) where there was, albeit
for different reasons, a fairly small middle income group

A key empirical demonstration of this latter
>argument depends on the rates of profit obtained from low wage sectors. My
>understanding is that rates of profit in low paying sectors in the US
>economy are very high - I know this is true for Health although of course
>this is a sector with internal divisions (although - am I right here -
>only Physicians have high pay within it). Any info and / or views on this
>matter ?

Unfortunately, as attractive as rates of profit are as a way of analyzing
sectors of the economy, I don't really think they tell us much about the
actual performance becuase profit is only a small portion of surplus and
there is simply no way to measure surplus.


Carl Dassbach

---------------------------
Carl H.A. Dassbach                                [EMAIL PROTECTED]
Dept. of Social Sciences                         (906)487-2115 - Phone
Michigan Technological Univ.                  (906)487-2468 - Fax
Houghton, MI  49931                               (906)482-8405 - Private



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