Brad,

George suggested in his Law of Human Progress that the Progress
of Civilization depended on "Association in Equality".

In my courses I use the more positive term "cooperation" rather
than "association" but I think association is better. Equality
doesn't mean we are all the same, which would be nonsense, but
that societal conditions for everyone remain the same.

Thus, insomuch as association is diminished and inequality rises,
so does civilization decline. Do you think he might have been on
to something?
 
Harry

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-----Original Message-----
From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
[mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of Brad
McCormick, Ed.D.
Sent: Sunday, November 30, 2003 6:40 AM
To: Keith Hudson
Cc: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
Subject: Re: [Futurework] A glimpse of medieval Hangzhou and the
Song civilisation

[snip]
>> I have yet to see where scholars have really answered the
question 
>> for either China or the classical Greco-Roman world (and late 
>> Medieval Islam? and some of the American pre-Columbian
>> cultures?):
>>
>>     Why did not these cultures "take off" scientifically and
>>     in engineering, as Europe did aproximately beginning
>>     with Galileo?  What went wrong?
>>
>> We can blame the decline of Minoan civilization on a massive
volcanic 
>> eruption, locally equivalent for the Minoans to that meteor
that 
>> changed global environmental conditions to the detriment of
the 
>> dinosaurs.
> 
> 
> 
> If it does not sound prosaic, I think we can understand why the
rich 
> and liberal culture of late medieval Islam declined. At about
that 
> time, the technological and artistic fruits of China were
bursting 
> into Europe, and the Islamic clerics had to take a stance on
this 
> because they were mightily afraid of the consequences,
particularly 
> the military. A series of /ijtihads/ (learned interpretations
of the 
> Koran) by their senior divines, however, caused Islam to turn
against 
> western ways. The rich trading culture of Islam all through the

> Mediterranean and beyond started declining vis-a-vis European
merchants declined from then on.
> Whereas western Europe gained some of the virtues of liberal 
> civilisation, Islam lost them. (At the same time, a parallel
series of 
> discussions was going on within the Jewish community but the
'liberal'
> rabbis -- e.g. Maimonides -- held sway.
[snip]

Well, Charles Murray proposes an answer anent the classical
Greeks in today's NYT Week in Review: The invention of formal
deductive logic turned the classical Greeks' heads away from
empirical praxis [he probably would not use that word!] to
abstracted speculative deduction. And then Newton turned modern
Europe toward the reduction of the human world of daily life to
physics.  BUt all this happened as "unintended consequences".

Let's assume that Murray is right.  The question arises:

     How could European civilization, for over 2,000 years
     and continuing almost unabated today, have essentially
     have lost track of the universal fact that all
     ratiocination is human *activity* with motivations,
     aspirations, intentions, etc.?

     To answer this question and to turn the Juggernaut
     European humanity,
     including our universities and research labs, etc. --
     to answer this question and turn the Juggernaut
     around, was Edmund Husserl's lifework, as well
     as the intention of others who took the other
     fork in the road to enlightenment at the end of the
     Middle Ages: Erasmus, Rabelais... and in our time,
     persons such as Stephen Toulmin.

Why doe almost nobody take of the fact that all laws of physics
which take the form:

     If <whatever-1> then <whatever-2>

Really have the form:

     If we do <whatever-1a> then we will
     encounter <whatever-b>

?

It is impossible in principle to show, e.g., that

     For every "action" [matter in motion..] there
     is an equal but opposite reaction [matter in motion...]

But it may indeed be possible for us to
discover that:

     Every time we look at matter in motion, we find
     that when we observe one thing strike another thing
     in a certain way, we observe that the first thing's
     speed and direction of motion changes in an equal
     measure but in the opposite direction of the
     change we observe in the speed and direction of
     the second object.  AND, furthermore, each time
     we make such an observation, we do so because
     we have certain desires which we can describe for
     ourselves and for others either immediately or
     thru a process of self-reflection. HENCE, two
     "sciences" are elaborated in every experiment
     we do: (1) Physics, and (2) the interpretation
     of daily life (See! This science is so little
     practiced that it does not even have a name
     that would be generally understood.  Certainly
     "Transcendental phenomnology" would not
     make sense to many educatd persons).

Why is this almost never done?  Or am I a member of some small
fraction of the population who have not yet heard the good news?

\brad mccormick


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