OK. Here's the thinking. We don't know what Josephus means by
'Essenes' - whether a generic term or a specific sect. His definition
does not agree totally with Philo or Pliny. So let's talk about
'Josephus's Essenes' for a start, whoever or whatever they are. And
let's infer that since Joesphus says there are four haireses
then the community described in D will fall into one of those
four.
1. Another of the four fits better. I doubt this can be
sustained
2. Josephus knows of other groups he does not mention. But as
Cross said (on of the few things I agree with him on), the likelihood
that there are two major groups with such similar features is
improbable. If so, Josephus would probably have had to say, 'well, I
can see how you might confuse these people with Essenes but actually
they are something slightly different that I omitted to mention.
Possible yes. Likely?
I was trying to restrict the question about Essene=D identity to
the simpler question: are the matches between Josephus and D texts so
close that we think Josephus would have said D belonged in the Essene
box. Not that they necessarily were Essene (I am not sure
Josephus ever had direct contact as he claims; he seems to be using
sources about them and not necessarily personal experience). We can do
the same exercise with Pliny and with Philo, and I would say that
Pliny does not match D (it fits S much better) , while Philo does, to
an extent. We can also see how far Josephus's description of
individual Essenes fits his profile (did they consort with Herod?)
That, I think, is the limit of reasonable inference. We can speculate
form there on what underlies the three accounts. But speculation it
is, however reasonable, and it involves rationalization of the
evidence.
I hope that unpacks my assertion. I hope it does not seem either
too sceptical or too credulous.
Philip Davies
Philip Davies wrote,
> The one historical conclusions that might be permitted is that if
> Josephus has been asked wither the group(s) described in D were what
> he would dub 'Essenes' he would almost certainly say (he'd have to!),
> 'yes'.
Could you explain the reasoning behind this assertion? It doesn't seem
self-evident to me.
Ken Penner
McMaster/Hebrew
--
Professor Philip R Davies
University of Sheffield
University of Sheffield
