From: "[email protected]" <[email protected]>
To: [email protected]
...While certain keys were associated with
certain moods often in the romantic period it also doesn't mention the fact
that
some keys were chosen because of specific instruments or specific
instrumentation.
It goes back centuries further than the romantic period. The concept of
specific emotions or "moods" associated with specific modes [the precursors of
keys] started with the ancient Greeks. It was codified in many medieval music
theory texts. The spedifics of instruments and instrumentation were really
only secondary to emotional considerations usually. Besides, when it comes to
that it is really only the brass that needed to be considered, and we all know
about transposition!
There is absolutely no way to objectively say that a particular key will
always be a certain mood to everyone - and there is no objective way to
compose anything that will always convey the same mood to everyone.
This is entirely true, especially today. However, in the hundreds of years
that this was in vogue I would venture to say that everyone was "taught" what
was meant by certain modes and melodic figurations.
For example, we can easily objectively say if something is out of tune by
measuring it. However when it comes to the correct or incorrect interpretation
of a piece we cannot simply measure something to find out if it is correct.
I'm a science nerd, so it always bothers me when people try to apply subjective
ideas objectively.
That is true for today, once again. However it is only true for the last 200
years or so that the "Scientic Viewpoint" has been the prevailing and majority
one. I do not see any purpose in losing the perspective of the composer and the
populace that would have heard the music just to make the creation of that
music fit our modern viewpoint. We must use our knowledge and persepctive by
all means, but we must include the predominant mindset of the age in which the
composer lived in order to fully understand more of the why of its creation.
It is my belief that unless the composer wrote in prose exactly what made him
or her compose a specific piece we can only use our intimation, or as Nero
Wolfe would say "knowledge guided by experience" to come as close as we can to
that conclusion. Music will always be subjective in interpretation and such,
but it is standard practice in solving problems to use subjective views in an
objective framework to
help solve the problem [in this case the "why did he write it the way he did?
problem.]
Didn't mean to get all longwinded and such, but you know how it goes, there is
always at least one or two subjects that ignite one's ardor. thanks for letting
me throw in my $.03 worth.
Paxmaha
________________________________
_______________________________________________
post: [email protected]
unsubscribe or set options at
https://pegasus.memphis.edu/cgi-bin/mailman/options/horn/archive%40jab.org
