Another thing that is also forgotten is that equal temperament was by no
means universal. Depending on the temperament used, some keys would have
better 5ths or 3rds.

Susan Thompson

-----Original Message-----
From: [email protected] [mailto:[email protected]] On Behalf
Of David A. Jewell
Sent: Thursday, October 15, 2009 12:22 PM
To: The Horn List
Subject: Re: [Hornlist] "Keeping Score" with Objectivity

From: "[email protected]" <[email protected]>
To: [email protected]
...While certain keys were associated with  
certain moods often in the romantic period it also doesn't mention the fact
that 
some keys were chosen because of specific instruments or specific  
instrumentation.


It goes back centuries further than the romantic period.  The concept of
specific emotions or "moods" associated with specific modes [the precursors
of keys] started with the ancient Greeks. It was codified in many medieval
music theory texts.  The spedifics of instruments and instrumentation were
really only secondary to emotional considerations usually.  Besides, when it
comes to that it is really only the brass that needed to be considered, and
we all know about transposition!

There is absolutely no way to objectively say that a particular key will  
always be a certain mood to everyone - and there is no objective way to  
compose anything that will always convey the same mood to everyone.

This is entirely true, especially today.  However, in the hundreds of  years
that this was in vogue I would venture to say that everyone was "taught"
what was meant by certain modes and melodic figurations.

For example, we can easily objectively say if something is out of tune by  
measuring it. However when it comes to the correct or
incorrect interpretation  of a piece we cannot simply measure something to
find out if it is  correct. I'm a science nerd, so it always bothers me when
people try to apply subjective ideas objectively.


That is true for today, once again.  However it is only true for the last
200 years or so that the "Scientic Viewpoint"  has been the prevailing and
majority one. I do not see any purpose in losing the perspective of the
composer and the populace that would have heard the music just to make the
creation of that music fit our modern viewpoint.  We must use our knowledge
and persepctive by all means, but we must include the predominant mindset of
the age in which the composer lived in order to fully understand more of the
why of its creation.  It is my belief that unless the composer wrote in
prose exactly what made him or her compose a specific piece we can only use
our intimation, or as Nero Wolfe would say "knowledge guided by experience" 
to come as close as we can to that conclusion.  Music will always be
subjective in interpretation and such, but it is standard practice in
solving problems to use subjective views in an objective framework to
 help solve the problem [in this case the "why did he write it the way he
did? problem.]

Didn't mean to get all longwinded and such, but you know how it goes, there
is always at least one or two subjects that ignite one's ardor. thanks for
letting me throw in my $.03 worth.
Paxmaha

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