I think it's time to get the horse back in front  of the cart.  IANAL, but I 
think the first thing that need to be done is define the market that has 
allegedly been monopolized.  I don't know if (legally) it is proper to define 
the market as "IBM compatible mainframes", that sounds a little too 
restrictive.  You can define almost any company as a monopoly if you define the 
market restrictive enough.
 
In the 50's and 60's it was easy, IBM dominated the tabulating and computer 
industries as a whole, which is certainly not the case today.

>>> "Thompson, Steve" <[email protected]> 10/19/2009 4:42 PM >>>
-----Original Message-----
From: IBM Mainframe Discussion List [mailto:[email protected]] On
Behalf Of Rick Fochtman
Sent: Monday, October 19, 2009 3:08 PM
To: [email protected] 
Subject: Re: Fwd: Is There Such a Thing as a Mainframe Monopoly?

---------------------------------<snip>-------------------------------
Who else produces mainframes???????? What is the market share of the 
competition /IBM???????? There is your answer.
---------------------------------<snip>--------------------------------
IBM's competitors essentially handed a monopoly to IBM when they 
announced decisions NOT to implement a 64-bit architecture. So if it is 
a monopoly, it's not by IBM's malicious actions.
<SNIP>

Please tell me what you consider to be malicious actions.

Would suing a company and then buying them out to keep from losing the
case meet your definition?

Would refusing to license your software on machines other than what you
produce go toward malicious actions?

Would refusing to license your software for running on a competitor's
machine, when just a few months earlier you were doing that?

Enquiring minds would like to know.

Regards,
Steve Thompson

-- Opinions expressed by this poster may not reflect those of poster's
employer --

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