>Why does IBM have this compulsion to be different from everyone else
and invent its own terminology rather than using a conventional,
well-understood word such as "bijective"?

Because "bijective" is not so well understood by anyone born before 1952 or so. 
 The term relates to SET Theory, which was a big part of the "New Math".  My 
younger brother, born in 1953 was exposed to this, but I was not.  Actually, I 
only learned of the term (and the noun "bijection") on this forum, this past 

But, of course we have digressed far from Charles original question.  Sorry.


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