On Wed, Mar 20, 2002 at 10:36:30AM +0530, Murugan KAT wrote: > Let us think of a single RTM having for both V4 and V6. > But to what extent this is valid from routing stacks.? Will it be valid to > propogate V4 routing info. also to V6 domain.? Obviously the other way is > not valid?
In a multi-protocol world, this might well be valid at least for "site"-local
routing. Think OSPF, which provides routing information primary for OSI
protocols, but propagates the topology information to other protocol modules
(e.g., IPv4).
Now, if you have a node that only speaks one of the protocols involved,
it obviously can't do this - but we're speaking of multiprotocol capable
nodes already, right?
Regards
-is
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