On Wed, Mar 20, 2002 at 11:03:21AM +0100, Ignatios Souvatzis wrote: > On Wed, Mar 20, 2002 at 10:45:04AM +0100, Ignatios Souvatzis wrote: > > On Wed, Mar 20, 2002 at 10:36:30AM +0530, Murugan KAT wrote: > > > > > Let us think of a single RTM having for both V4 and V6. > > > But to what extent this is valid from routing stacks.? Will it be valid to > > > propogate V4 routing info. also to V6 domain.? Obviously the other way is > > > not valid? > > > > In a multi-protocol world, this might well be valid at least for "site"-local > > routing. Think OSPF, which provides routing information primary for OSI > > protocols, but propagates the topology information to other protocol modules > > (e.g., IPv4). > > > > Now, if you have a node that only speaks one of the protocols involved, > > it obviously can't do this - but we're speaking of multiprotocol capable > > nodes already, right? > > I forgot: obviously, you need some way to associate the, say, OSI address > of a local net or node with it's IPv4 and IPv6 network address.
I was confused. ELOWCOFFEE. s/OSPF/IS-IS/g in the above.
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