So far, I'm not sure that Paul can tell the difference. As far as I can
tell, his logic is that the founding fathers, owners of only a tiny portion
of the property in the colonies and later the United States, made an
agreement that is legally binding for everyone, regardless of whether they
consented. Not only that, but the agreement binds all future residents and
visitors of the United States.

-----Original Message-----
From: [email protected] [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]
Behalf Of kiddleddee
Sent: Friday, April 28, 2006 9:59 AM
To: [email protected]
Subject: [Libertarian] Re: Purity


  --- In [email protected], <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
  >
  > And your's fails where you assume that collective property is a
  legitimate concept.  There is no such thing as collective property
  absent an initiation of force.  And initiation of force is contra-
  moral, and contra-libertarian.
  >
  > BWS
  ______________________________________________________________________

  Partnerships, condominiums, etc. are a legitimate form of "collective"
  property and that's all well and good. That's not the kind
  of "collective" property Paul is talking about, I'm afraid.





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