-----Original Message-----
Ted MacNEIL

>What I was alluding to was that a zAAP will run anyone's Java code (or 
>a subset)

>Yes, but the dispatcher has to know how/when to direct a sub-task to
the zAAP. It doesn't happen just because you have JAVA and a zAAP.

If I have a zAAP and are at appropriate levels of z/OS and JAVA (and
whatever else) to support it and configured appropriately and I have
JAVA code that 'could' run on a zAAP and I don't have to change my JAVA
code to make it zAAP eligible then isn't that the same as it  'happen
just because you have JAVA and a zAAP' ?  I am assuming that I (sysprog
or applications) don't need to do anything to specify what work is zAAP
eligible and that if I am configured correctly (hardware and code
levels) whatever is zAAP legible will attempt to use it.

>but for work to run on a zIIP you have to know/code something specific
to gain access to it (or at least this was how it was explained to me).

>No. There are no application changes required.
>It's all in the dispatcher.

But is it documented specifically (and free other than a z/OS license)
what meets the eligibility requirements or does (CA for example) need to
work with IBM and possibly change code (either CA's or IBM's) to allow a
new exploiter (e.g. CA-IDMS)?

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