> On Mon, 17 Aug 1998, Crease wrote:
>
> > Why does this happen? Can you configure ppp to request pap and at
> > the same time reject peer pap authentication?
> >
> > ISPs i've used before request to authenticate user none password none.
> ...
> > Interestingly enough, when I use +pap my ISP (or is it me) fails to negotiate
>pap correctly, but if I remove +pap it authenticates (via pap!) fine.
> > It has no login prompt.
>
> Specifying '+pap' on the user end would require the ISP to authenticate
> itself to the user's system using it's own secret. As the user doesn't
> have an entry for the ISP in the pap-secrets, the ISP will be rejected.
> Only the ISP end should specify '+pap'. In sideways' case, it seems
> unlikely (not impossible) that the ISP uses PAP if they have a text login
> sequence (userid and password).
>
> Geof
And what entry COULD be made for the ISP in pap-secrets? I've seen ISPs say
"user=none password=none" but that wouldn't be valid, would it?
Is the only choice not using +pap?
I find the HOWTO a bit vague on this part: i had been led to believe
that you HAD to authenticate the peer. Thanks for the enlightment.
Christian
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