Hi there.
Since a month ago our ISP started to use network 10.x.x.x to set up his
side of P-t-P:
> ippp0 Link encap:Point-to-Point Protocol
> inet addr:212.216.141.209 P-t-P:10.31.92.42 Mask:255.255.255.255
> UP POINTOPOINT RUNNING NOARP MTU:1500 Metric:1
Of course, the other end (our end) of p-t-p has a valid internet ip. The
questions are:
1) I know that some RFC's says that a network 10.x.x.x cannot be used on
internet. Does our isp pratice violates those RFCs?
2) We are using network 10 for our internal networks. We have a lot of
lan, so the chance to hit the same ip used by our ISP are not so far.
Can this produce problems?
My guess is that the route of a p-t-p (that is netmasked
255.255.255.255) shouldn't hurt the internal lan in any case, but
sometime I'm in doubt.
When I setup a default gateway via this ppp link, the routing bind is
made on the device, on the first address, on the second address, on
both? As I can see from the route -n report
0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 U 0 0 0 ippp0
seems that the default route is assigned to a "device", not ad
"address".
The doubts become from the fact that I can ping the first address (our
side of p2p), but I can ping the other side, too. What happen if, for
istance, my lan is exactly a 10.31.92.0 network? And if I have an host
10.31.92.42 on it?
---------------------------------------------------------------
Kanna ^ ^ Lorenzo Canovi <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
''___O Linux User Perennemente Occupato
L.U.P.O. _____) http://kanna.metodo.net
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