On 2/5/21 12:04 PM, Michael Meeropol wrote:
In response to Tristan----this is the old dispute as to whether capitalism can be defined as production for markets rather than as a relationship between people at the point of production.
I wouldn't put it that way exactly. For me, the main distinction is whether capitalism is a mode of production or a global system that can incorporate multiple forms of exploitation. Latin America always operated under conditions of forced labor, ranging from slavery to peonage to indentured servitude. If they took some other form corresponding to the British manufacturing model in V. 1 of Capital, Europe never could have become dominant globally. The tea produced in Asia and the coffee produced in Latin America helped keep the wage laborer in a textile mill alert while he or she tended to the machinery spinning cotton produced by American slaves.
-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=- Groups.io Links: You receive all messages sent to this group. View/Reply Online (#6132): https://groups.io/g/marxmail/message/6132 Mute This Topic: https://groups.io/mt/80286261/21656 -=-=- POSTING RULES & NOTES #1 YOU MUST clip all extraneous text when replying to a message. #2 This mail-list, like most, is publicly & permanently archived. #3 Subscribe and post under an alias if #2 is a concern. -=-=- Group Owner: marxmail+ow...@groups.io Unsubscribe: https://groups.io/g/marxmail/leave/8674936/1316126222/xyzzy [arch...@mail-archive.com] -=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-
