Hi Bo, 

I think you're on to something.

> My opinion is that Jesus 
> picked up the intellectual (SOM) signals from the Greek culture - 
> directly or via the Roman occupants - and that his revolt against 
> Mosaic Law (the law for humans, not humans for the law) was 
> intellectual value's first intrusion on this social value-steeped 
> region. Intellect had no impact on Judaism then (it's still 
> impervious) nor on the later Islam, and for 1,5 thousand years 
> Christendom also continued in the traditional vein with a bit more 
> complicated divine family. After the Renaissance however Jesus' 
> human message came to the fore again. The later development 
> was many-faceted, but generally it ended up in the said liberal 
> form. In MOQ-speak Christendom became more and more 
> intellect-influenced, but intellect (SOM) spawned the MOQ, what 
> will a MOQ-influenced Christendom be like, will it become a 
> Buddhist/Taoist-like wisdom? Or does the MOQ aspire to a future 
> wisdom that even encompasses the Eastern tradition?   

It has always been of interest to me that people here and elsewhere who 
claim to be atheists invariably invoke the teachings of Jesus when asked to 
describe the basis for their moral guidance. Whether it's extolling the 
goodness of being my brother's keeper or making love not war, invariably 
Christian moral principles are imputed by atheist intellectuals. Some 
radical leftists have even gone so far as to claim a Marxist government 
would be a  an expression of Christian ideals.

All of which raises the question: Is Christian morality also an 
intellectual level morality? That a Christian-suffused group of
Founding Fathers in the U.S. established the MOQ-cited intellectual level  
guarantees of freedom of speech, freedom of religion, trail by jury, etc. 
would suggest a "yes" answer.

What do you think?

Best,
Platt
    
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