Aren't both ises and oughts based on value judgements and how well they
fit with what we know?
A trivial example might be:
if
X equals Y
then
Y ought to equal X
else
something is amiss.
Ises say something about how we believe the world to be (or might be)
and oughts extrapolate from those beliefs.
If there is a relationship between ises and oughts then these
relationships ought to be examined, not only the ises and oughts
themselves and that implies further value judgements.
It also depends on whether an is is a statment or a question.
Lots of value judgements to consider but all based on what and how we value.
Just a thought
Horse
On 27/04/2010 06:59, [email protected] wrote:
[Steve]
I think the fact/value distinction is just to say that facts and
values are different sorts of things.
For Searle the Is-Ought gap is the same as the fact/value gap
& the descriptive/evaluative gap.
[Steve]
Putnam is saying "so what?" We are never in that
position of having a bunch of "is" premises and needing to derive our
very first "ought."
If this is right, Putnam misses the point. Whether we NEED to or not, CAN
we derive an "ought" from an "is"? There might be "oughts" which cannot
be derived& others which can. Of the latter, CAN they only be derived from "is es".
Craig
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