On Feb 14, 2007, at 11:57 AM, Janko Hauser wrote:

> As I do not understand fonts at all, but is it really so, that one  
> needs to have the bold fontpackage if one wants to set a word in  
> bold in tex? Asked another way, can tex not do the same as word in  
> this regard?
>
> with regards,
>
> __Janko

TeX can produce an artificial bold version of type 1 fonts via  
postscript commands in the map file, and you can consult the index of  
the TeXbook for "poor man's bold" for another solution. In both  
cases, the typographic quality is so low that you really don't want  
to go there. Word output is ugly anyway, so nobody cares if it  
produces artificial bold that makes it even uglier...

Thomas
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