I know OpenVPN doesn't support IPv6 exclusively and requires an IPv4
address to be configured on the virtual interfaces to come up.
This might be an issue for us as we have OpenVPN routers connected to
networks we don't control. The routers could end up with physical
interfaces connected to network addresses that collide with any IPv4 range
we use internally.
In testing, I've been able to configure OpenVPN with a ULA IPv6 addresses
and the required IPv4 address and via an --up script, remove the IPv4
address... This seems to work just fine.
My question; are their any unforeseen issues or consequences of doing
this? Its very 'hackish' and feels like it might be a mistake to take this
setup to production and I was hoping someone could chime in on any dangers
of such a work around.
thanks
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