John, List, I appreciate your reply. Well, Peirce has a good description and he calls this the "real". Now, he makes a mistake when he says the noumenal is nonsense (or words to that effect) for my proof necessitates that the "real" can only exist (and does in absentia of all formalism I might add, but I do not say Peirce did not know this either) insofar as you admit the noumenal and this is beyond all possible experience (precisely as Kant said). It is genuinely Apriori and is an inferred necessity.
I'd rather ask you for the precise terms you want the proof in. The style of logic (consistent/para-modal/etc) and so on rather than present one which will be dismissed for some formal flaw. It's best that way. I have it in many different "languages". It is flexible so I can accommodate you here. You set the formal rules, explicitly, if you could (I ask a lot here maybe), and I'll return the good faith with a proof in that language/style. Best Jack PS: the "real" is apriori (and I find Peirce most sensible when he does agree with Kant, at that stage in his life where admits that something like the noumenal must exist, before he later goes back upon it — if my chronology is correct). ________________________________ From: [email protected] <[email protected]> on behalf of Jon Alan Schmidt <[email protected]> Sent: Tuesday, June 24, 2025 6:19 PM To: [email protected] <[email protected]> Subject: Re: [PEIRCE-L] Modeling and finalizing Peirce's semiotics with AI, Part 1. Jack, List: JRKC: I think it close to impossible to demonstrate the necessity of a triad On the contrary, Robert Burch wrote an entire book to present his proof of Peirce's reduction thesis (https://books.google.com/books/about/A_Peircean_Reduction_Thesis.html?id=MK-EAAAAIAAJ) and provides a very brief summary in his online SEP entry about Peirce (https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/peirce/#red), while Sergiy Koshkin purports to demonstrate it even more rigorously in a recent Transactions paper (https://muse.jhu.edu/pub/3/article/886447). Personally, I find Peirce's own diagrammatic demonstration to be simple and persuasive enough--relations of any adicity can be built up of triads, but triads cannot be built up of monads or dyads despite involving them (EP 2:364, 1905). [image.png] JRKC: I can prove the necessity of that Kant calls the Noumenal apriori You have made this ambitious claim here before. What precise definition are you using for "the Noumenal"? In other words, please spell out exactly what you believe that you have proved, preferably as a complete deductive argumentation with carefully formulated premisses and the conclusion that (allegedly) follows necessarily from them. Regards, Jon Alan Schmidt - Olathe, Kansas, USA Structural Engineer, Synechist Philosopher, Lutheran Christian www.LinkedIn.com/in/JonAlanSchmidt<http://www.LinkedIn.com/in/JonAlanSchmidt> / twitter.com/JonAlanSchmidt<http://twitter.com/JonAlanSchmidt> On Tue, Jun 24, 2025 at 10:11 AM Jack Cody <[email protected]<mailto:[email protected]>> wrote: List, Robert Thanks for the link to your paper. I have to say, and this may go down like a lead balloon, but to be truly apriori, insofar as I am certain Kant and Hume use this term consistent with what it ought to mean, in that it be "independent of experience", then you must make provision for results which are not restricted to the triadic. That is, I think it close to impossible to demonstrate the necessity of a triad, which to me, is an arbitrary schema in all geometry and sciences, regardless of qualitative distinction surrounding it which I do understand (Peirce and so forth — it is not arbitrary for Peirce and he makes his arguments as everyone knows). I'd be interested to know if you can prove the necessity of retaining the triad and qualify "independent of experience" (I cannot). I can prove the necessity of that Kant calls the Noumenal apriori and it is one of the few things which is truly apriori (I'm hard pressed to think of a second, in fact).
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