Gary R, List

The below is not about semiosic ontology but about posting to the list. 

Since this list does not have that many people who actually post -  then I 
wonder how many people support each method: the one-a-day vs- as many as you 
feel’. 

I still continue to feel that, even if one’s post is a ‘paraphrase of the 
mentor's own words - it is best to reveal such by phrases such as ‘ To 
paraphrase Peirce’….rather than the very different ‘Peirce and I’, which 
presents a type of ‘appeal-to-authority’ tone to one’s words. 

And I think that discussants should each on their own, define their terms…ie- 
there is no need for anyone else to step in and do this task for them.  Since 
we are, each of us, interpreters of Peirce or whomever, then, I think we each 
have to clarify how we interpret our use of terms. 

Edwina



> On Aug 7, 2025, at 4:20 AM, Gary Richmond <[email protected]> wrote:
> 
> List, Edwina, Jon, Jack,
> 
> Edwina wrote: As for the one-post-per-day- I’m against it, because I think it 
> transforms an interactive discussion into a site of polemical sermons. 
> GR: As I wrote on List and to you, Edwina, off List, so far you are the only 
> List member who appears to see it this way; on and off List, participants 
> have tended to find this approach reasonable. This is not to say that you are 
> the only one who is 'against it'. But, at least for now, I see no reason to 
> change that rule. 
> 
> ET: . . . I really don’t applaud the use of such phrases as ‘Peirce and I’ or 
> 'Kant and I’… The ‘best buddies' analogy only works, I suggest, for 
> existential reality  and since neither gentleman is around..then.... 
> GR: I would tend to agree except when someone posts something which is a 
> paraphrase of Peirce's own words, especially when that is supported by a 
> Peirce quotation demonstrating that the paraphrase does indeed accurately 
> express Peirce's idea. There is nothing 'novel' about that in scholarly 
> scientific discussion.
> 
> ET: I think that both Jack and Jon should define what each one means by the 
> term of ‘ding an sich’.  I suspect that for each, the meanings are quite 
> different - and therefore, we have a situation of tails chasing tails.
> 
> I concur with Jon's current and earlier explanation of the reasons for 
> Peirce's (and his and my) rejection of Kant's 'ding an sich'. In a word, 
> Peirce considers Kant's notion of a thing-in-itself as incoherent since it 
> posits something completely incognizable.  For Peirce Reality -- that is, the 
> reality of physical and mental 'things' -- is accessible within the limits of 
> fallible thought and ongoing inquiry. while the thing-in-itself  is 
> 'something' we cannot discuss meaningfully or use productively in inquiry.
> 
> Perhaps the following passage will help clarify both just how strongly Peirce 
> felt himself influenced by Kant as well as his total rejection of the idea of 
> the 'ding an sich'. I've added the numbers 1 and 2 for clarity within the 
> passage. This List discussion principally concerns itself with 2.
> Critical Common-sensism may fairly lay claim to this title for two sorts of 
> reasons; namely, 1. that on the one hand it subjects four opinions to rigid 
> criticism: its own; that of the Scotch school; that of those who would base 
> logic or metaphysics on psychology or any other special science, the least 
> tenable of all the philosophical opinions that have any vogue; and 2. that of 
> Kant; while on the other hand it has besides some claim to be called Critical 
> from the fact that it is but a modification of Kantism. The present writer 
> was a pure Kantist until he was forced by successive steps into Pragmaticism. 
> The Kantist has only to abjure from the bottom of his heart the proposition 
> that a thing-in-itself can, however indirectly, be conceived; and then 
> correct the details of Kant's doctrine accordingly, and he will find himself 
> to have become a Critical Common-sensist. CP 5.452 (“Issues of Pragmaticism” 
> The Monist, Volume 15, Number 4, October 1905, emphasis added).
> Best,
> 
> Gary R
> 
> 
> 
> 
> On Wed, Aug 6, 2025 at 2:33 PM Edwina Taborsky <[email protected] 
> <mailto:[email protected]>> wrote:
>> List
>> 
>> I think that both Jack and Jon should define what each one means by the term 
>> of ‘ding an sich’.  I suspect that for each, the meanings are quite 
>> different - and therefore, we have a situation of tails chasing tails.
>> 
>> As for the one-post-per-day- I’m against it, because I think it transforms 
>> an interactive discussion into a site of polemical sermons. 
>> 
>> And as an addition to this - I also suggest that posters should be careful 
>> to differentiate themselves from their ‘mentors’, so to speak. That is - I 
>> really don’t applaud the use of such phrases as ‘Peirce and I’ or 'Kant and 
>> I’… The ‘best buddies' analogy only works, I suggest, for existential 
>> reality  and since neither gentleman is around..then.... 
>> 
>> With regard to the Peircean outline of the 'ding an sich’….it’s not the 
>> same, as I understand his outline, as the external object which is ‘anything 
>> that is not affected by any cognition, whether about it of not, of the man 
>> to whom it is external’ [5.525]. This simply means, to me, an object which 
>> is not being interacted with at the moment by this human.ie, until such time 
>> as it becomes a Dynamic Object rather than an ‘external object’..[EP2.478]. 
>> Though I will note that this external object, let’s call it a tree,  is most 
>> certainly in the semiosic process of Dynamic Object  interaction with other 
>> entities such as a caterpillar, an ant, a bird, ..
>> 
>> Peirce continues in this section  ….but, if you ‘exaggerate this …”you have 
>> the conception of what is not affected by any cognitions at all…and.. the 
>> notion of what does not affect cognition"…. That is - an entity which does 
>> not affect cognition and which is itself not affected by cognition. 
>> 
>> This means, as I understand it, an entity which is outside of the processes 
>> of Thirdness, because Thridness is the mode of being of Cognition or Mind,  
>> I would just add that for Peirce, cognition does not require a brain 
>> [4.551]…but is operative in all existentially..ie..existence requires 
>> continuity of organization or habits-of-form, and these habits can be 
>> understood as the operation  of Mind/cognition - whether within the 
>> formation and operation of a chemical molecule, a bacterium or an insect. . 
>> 
>> And note further, that Thirdness is communal; ie, Forms or habits don't 
>> exist ‘per se’ [Aristotle vs Plato] but only within existing entities and 
>> operative as a general, as a commonality - operative within a collective and 
>> thus requires interaction…which is to say, semiosis. Can the ding an sich 
>> exist per se, outside of semiosis? 
>>  In other words - is there such an entity operative without Mind? Doesn’t a 
>> chemical molecule exist only within its common general formulation? And if 
>> it does, then, doesn’t this put us more into the analysis offered by Peirce?
>> 
>> So- the definition of ‘ding an sich’,in my view, requires clarification.
>> 
>> Edwina
>> 
>> . 
>> 
>> 
>> 
>> 
>> 
>> 
>> 
>>> On Aug 6, 2025, at 12:35 PM, Jon Alan Schmidt <[email protected] 
>>> <mailto:[email protected]>> wrote:
>>> 
>>> Jack, List:
>>> 
>>> In addition to the List post to which I am replying, you sent me three 
>>> off-List messages within 30 minutes last night, followed by a fourth one 
>>> this morning. Why not just wait a few hours to get some sleep, collect your 
>>> thoughts, and send a single on-List post--the one per thread per day that 
>>> is currently allowed--with everything that you wanted to say? I have come 
>>> to appreciate the wisdom of that restriction, so that is exactly what I am 
>>> doing here, quoting your off-List messages where I address them. I have 
>>> tried to limit the resulting length of this post by linking or citing some 
>>> relevant passages instead of quoting them.
>>> 
>>> Your first statement below is inscrutable to me, but for "the tree 
>>> example," you initially said the following off-List.
>>> 
>>> JRKC: Humans may use representational sign-systems but there is zero proof 
>>> (and none possible) that trees and so forth do. The tree's reality may have 
>>> no "representation" at all. And, insofar as it could, it would always be 
>>> beyond us to ever know.
>>> 
>>> Not surprisingly for someone who has apparently embraced not only Kantian 
>>> epistemology and metaphysics, but also Saussurean linguistics, this 
>>> reflects a fundamental misunderstanding on your part--experience is a 
>>> strictly cognitive phenomenon, but semiosis is not. "It appears in the work 
>>> of bees, of crystals, and throughout the purely physical world; and one can 
>>> no more deny that it is really there, than that the colors, the shapes, 
>>> etc., of objects are really there" (CP 4.551, 1906). At this point, I join 
>>> Peirce in despairing of making this "broader conception" understood, at 
>>> least in your case. As you said later, "we probably diverge and that's 
>>> fine."
>>> 
>>> I previously quoted Kant's own epistemological definition of a priori as 
>>> "knowledge that is absolutely independent of all experience" (emphasis 
>>> mine). Best I can tell, you are still misapplying that term to the 
>>> ontological concept of a thing-in-itself as that which is (supposedly) 
>>> "beyond all possible experience" and therefore unknowable. However, you 
>>> have yet to address Peirce's simple refutation of this, which I summarized 
>>> a couple of days ago 
>>> (https://list.iu.edu/sympa/arc/peirce-l/2025-08/msg00008.html) as presented 
>>> in the very same paragraph where he refers to Kant as someone "whom I more 
>>> than admire" (CP 5.525, c. 1905; see also CP 6.95, 1903). Needless to say, 
>>> I continue to agree with him, and thus disagree with you and Kant; again, 
>>> "we probably diverge and that's fine."
>>> 
>>> JRKC: Not to be a pain, but the Gödel part is also wrong. When you 
>>> demonstrate complete inequivalence it has a bearing on all possible 
>>> systems. That includes all possible meaning making systems--including this 
>>> one and any possible system Peirce uses.
>>> 
>>> I still disagree--Gödel's incompleteness theorems strictly pertain to 
>>> sufficiently powerful formal systems as mathematical proofs that draw 
>>> necessary conclusions about hypothetical states of things. Applying them in 
>>> epistemology and ontology requires showing that both our knowledge and 
>>> reality itself conform to every single premiss, including a specific formal 
>>> system that meets the stipulated criteria. In other words, complete 
>>> inequivalence is a controversial hypothesis, not another established 
>>> theorem.
>>> 
>>> JRKC: Any definition of an object through a symbolic system is a function 
>>> of the system, not the object.
>>> 
>>> Objects do not have definitions, words do; and those definitions are indeed 
>>> functions of the sign system being employed, not the objects that they 
>>> purport to describe. In Peircean terms, the definition of a word is its 
>>> immediate interpretant, and whatever conforms to that definition is its 
>>> (potential) immediate object when it is incorporated into a proposition. 
>>> Any description of something using words is inevitably incomplete because 
>>> the words themselves and the concepts that they denote are general and 
>>> therefore indeterminate. As a result, "[T]he subject of discourse ... can, 
>>> in fact, not be described in general terms; it can only be indicated. The 
>>> actual world cannot be distinguished from a world of imagination by any 
>>> description. Hence the need of pronoun and indices, and the more 
>>> complicated the subject the greater the need of them" (CP 3.363, 1885; see 
>>> also CP 2.337, c. 1895, and CP 2.536, 1902).
>>> 
>>> Peirce's Existential Graphs iconically illustrate this. In the Beta part, 
>>> names (words) denote general concepts and heavy lines of identity denote 
>>> indefinite individuals (objects) to which those concepts are attributed by 
>>> attaching their names. The effect of such combinations in various 
>>> propositions is making the concepts more determinate and the individuals 
>>> more definite--ascribing the same concept to multiple individuals, 
>>> increasing that concept's logical breadth; and ascribing different concepts 
>>> to the same individual, increasing each concept's logical depth (see the 
>>> last two CSP quotations in my post at 
>>> https://list.iu.edu/sympa/arc/peirce-l/2025-07/msg00068.html). The product 
>>> of these for any particular concept is its information (CP 2.419, 1867), 
>>> which increases in both ways.
>>> 
>>> This finally gets us back to my semiosic ontological hypothesis, which I 
>>> will discuss further in a separate post in that thread.
>>> 
>>> Regards,
>>> 
>>> Jon Alan Schmidt - Olathe, Kansas, USA
>>> Structural Engineer, Synechist Philosopher, Lutheran Christian
>>> www.LinkedIn.com/in/JonAlanSchmidt 
>>> <http://www.linkedin.com/in/JonAlanSchmidt> / twitter.com/JonAlanSchmidt 
>>> <http://twitter.com/JonAlanSchmidt>
>>> On Tue, Aug 5, 2025 at 11:13 PM Jack Cody <[email protected] 
>>> <mailto:[email protected]>> wrote:
>>>> I can prove that to/through (mediation) the human being, the thing cannot 
>>>> be what it is in asbentia of that relation nor need it even be similar or 
>>>> remotely equivalent. I assert it rhetorically here. 
>>>> 
>>>> Now the tree example below, qua "impossible to know how a tree experiences 
>>>> anything as the tree does for a human" - this has an obvious bearing on 
>>>> realities that cannot possibly be represented (unless we mean represented 
>>>> as in "made-up conceptual stuff which is not true"). 
>>>> 
>>>> As to ontology — and sorry for the double post — Kant's claim is 
>>>> absolutely ontological for the noumenal is an ontological distinction and 
>>>> use of "apriori" as beyond experience is catogircally demarcated from his 
>>>> use of it in other contexts. He means, by the first a priori, that the 
>>>> meaning of the "thing" as it is is beyond all possible experience and that 
>>>> is what the thing in itself, generally, refers/corresponds to. That is an 
>>>> ontological distinction (you cannot merely call it epistemological wheter 
>>>> you accept the ontological distinction or not). 
>>>> 
>>>> Best wishes, 
>>>> 
>>>> Jack
>>> _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _
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>> 
>> _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _
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>> to repair / update all the links!
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_ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _
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https://cspeirce.com  and, just as well, at 
https://www.cspeirce.com .  It'll take a while to repair / update all the links!
► PEIRCE-L subscribers: Click on "Reply List" or "Reply All" to REPLY ON 
PEIRCE-L to this message. PEIRCE-L posts should go to [email protected] . 
► To UNSUBSCRIBE, send a message NOT to PEIRCE-L but to [email protected] with 
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