Helmut:
You would be rigth only if we accept that there are only one
phisic or only one math. I mean only if we are moving inside of the non
contradictory logic and the positivist thougth. But if we think in a world with
several maths ir physics, a world seen with contradictory logic, you are wrong.
From: [email protected]
To: [email protected]
Date: Sat, 14 Feb 2015 02:36:32 +0100
Subject: Aw: Re: [PEIRCE-L] Re: Six Ways of Looking at a Triadic Relation ⌬ 1
Supplement: I think, logic or mathematics is normative only if or because its
normativity is justified by proofs. Proof means, that there cannot be an
exception, so it is valid for the whole nature, i.e. the universe, so it is
universal. Ok, one might say, that this does not mean, that there are
statements that are not universal. But, as long as there is any universal
logic, these statements too must be in accord with it, or be contingent. But
contingency is not a property a statement can have. Only two events can be
contingent. If they have become parts of a statement though, they no longer
are, because the act (the statement), with which the utterer of the statement
has combined them, has happened for a reason, and this reason underlies logic,
because reason implies logic, or even is synonymous with it. I think, it is not
possible to utter a statement (combine two events, no matter how contingent or
nonsentic towards each other they are) without a reason- maybe that is why
dadaism was only a short time fashion.
Jon, List,
I see the difference between descriptive and normative semiotics. Mathematics
for instance is a normative science. But "normative" I think does not mean,
that it divides nature into two fields: the reasonable field and the extra-norm
field. I think, normativity rather should mean, that it is applicable for the
whole nature, including dadaist poetry. What would a norm be good for, if we
had the free choice to obey it or not? That would not be a norm, but an
arbitrary rule- and the laws of mathematics are not arbitrary rules, I think.
Maybe the free associations and personal connotations that pass through a given
interpreters head are chaotic- but chaos theory can cope with that, cant it? Or
is there really something like nondeterministic chaos (eg. in poetry and
language)??
Best regards,
Helmut
Helmut, List,
Descriptive semiotics is always available for describing whatever
manner of free associations and personal connotations might chance
to pass through a given interpreter's head or external expressions,
but logic conceived as normative semiotics is an inquiry oriented
toward more focal aims.
Regards,
Jon
On 2/12/2015 6:15 PM, Helmut Raulien wrote:
> Jon, List,
> I was thinking of comparing the sentence "C thanks A for B" with a square
> root:
> The square root of a positive number has either a positive or a negative
> result
> (or is it both?). And, that C is thankful is also only one possibility of
> result: C might also not like B and reject it, or might not care and not
> react.
> Ok, this is not a proper comparison, because the square root delivers only two
> exact results, and Cs possible feelings about being given a B are on a gradual
> scale. So I guess, that in poetry and language there is logic too, but a fuzzy
> logic. When a poet tries to produce something nonlogical, eg. in Dadaism, is
> this really "extra-logical", or just very very fuzzy? I mean, can there be
> something unique extra-logical at all?
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