Helmut, List, I wasn't completely sure about the meaning of your question:
• "Are interpretants an own class?" Is "own" a translation of "eigen" maybe? At any rate I went with my best guess and took you to be asking whether interpretants (and the other two classes) were ontologically distinctive in some way. I rewrote my last reply as a blog post with this interpretation in mind: • Relations & Their Relatives : 9 ( http://inquiryintoinquiry.com/2015/06/19/relations-their-relatives-9/ ) Please let me know if my reading of your sense is right or not. Regards, Jon On 6/18/2015 6:51 PM, Helmut Raulien wrote:
Supplement: On the other hand, even if interpretants are not an own class (or is the word "domain"?), their representations in a mind may well be, and certainly are. So- triadicity is rescued for me, I now think.
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Dear Jon, Peircers, I am wondering whether, mathematically spoken, there really are 3-adic relations in semiotics. An interpretant is a 2-adic relation (between representamen and object). But are interpretants an own class? Or are they a common class with representamens (syntactic domain)- or are some of them so, while others (the final interpretants) re-enter into the domain of objects? And: to regard the three sets objects, representamens, interpretants, doesnt this regarding (action of a mind) mean that they are represented? And doesnt representation by a mind mean, that these representations are all objects, other than the represented? So: Is the triadic relation between representamen, object and interpretant possibly a relation between three objects? In this case, it is not triadic: It is a 2-adic relation between the set of objects, and the same set of objects- at least reducible to this, I suspect. On the other hand one might say: The objects of a mind are divided into three classes: Representations of representamens, objects, and interpretants. Three classes mean 3-adicity. But then there is the problem again that I have mentioned: Are interpretants an own class? Best, Helmut
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