Yes! I agree.
Kirsti
Jon Awbrey kirjoitti 18.1.2017 05:52:
A Few Points Along This Line:
JA:https://list.iupui.edu/sympa/arc/peirce-l/2017-01/msg00055.html
JA:https://list.iupui.edu/sympa/arc/peirce-l/2017-01/msg00062.html
JA:https://list.iupui.edu/sympa/arc/peirce-l/2017-01/msg00063.html
JA:https://list.iupui.edu/sympa/arc/peirce-l/2017-01/msg00070.html
CG:https://list.iupui.edu/sympa/arc/peirce-l/2017-01/msg00100.html
Clark, List,
| There is nothing to prevent almost any sort of difference
| from being conventionally neglected in some discourse, and
| if 'I' be a term which in consequence of such neglect becomes
| indivisible in that discourse, we have in that discourse,
|
| ['I'] = 1.
I believe this is getting close to the heart of the issue.
Already by 1870 Peirce introduces a radical departure in
the status of individuals, and everything based on them.
Namely, he shifts individuality from a category of being
to a category of description, relative to a particular
discourse situation that we may variously conceive as
a context of interpretation, an extended sign relation,
a frame of reference, or a universe of discourse.
Another way of saying it is that individuality
becomes interpretive and relative rather than
ontological and absolute.
Regards,
Jon
On 1/17/2017 5:56 PM, Clark Goble wrote:
As I think through the dispute I think really what we’re getting at is
Peirce’s notion of the Universe of Discourse.
The question then becomes what distinguishes or differentiates one
universe of discourse from an other? We recognize
that there is not just one universe of discourse. For Peirce to denote
is to put the sign in relation to the object
of common communication. That is, a universe of discourse.
We can of course distinguish two universes such as the universe in
which Superman exists and the universe (such as
our own) in which he does not. But as soon as we concede this
distinguishing universes it seems to me much of what I
said follows as a corollary.
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