Dan, List,

I, for one, don't share your view that Peirce missed the boat on this one. In 
making the assertion, are you claiming that modern mathematical logic 
demonstrates that relations that might appear to be genuinely triadic--- such 
as giving, or mediating or thinking--can be entirely reduced to dyadic 
relations using logical resources that do not, themselves, employ those very 
relations? Or, are you saying that this has been shown in modern philosophical 
logic?


In both areas of inquiry, I do not think the matter is--by any means--somehow 
now settled. Here, at the beginning of the 21st century, there are plenty of 
reasons to doubt the assertions of Quine, Church, Turing, et al, on this matter.


Yours,


Jeff


Jeffrey Downard
Associate Professor
Department of Philosophy
Northern Arizona University
(o) 928 523-8354


________________________________
From: Dan Everett <danleveret...@gmail.com>
Sent: Sunday, April 21, 2019 11:47 AM
To: Jon Alan Schmidt
Cc: peirce-l@list.iupui.edu
Subject: Re: [PEIRCE-L] Symbols and Syntax (was Genuinely triadic relations, 
laws and symbols)

Yes, Jon, but Peirce was wrong.

These lexical decompositions are done by logicians.

Peirce unfortunately missed the boat on this and there is no solution from 
logic, because it is logic that points out the errors of Peirce's view of 
giving.

I will discuss this at length in my in-progress biography of Peirce, but also 
point to the overarching utility of his view in the notion of the interpretant.

He doesn't have to get everything right. The architectonic matters more than a 
few errors in specific solutions.

Dan

On Apr 21, 2019, at 2:44 PM, Jon Alan Schmidt 
<jonalanschm...@gmail.com<mailto:jonalanschm...@gmail.com>> wrote:

Dan, List:

Peirce was first and foremost a logician, not a linguist; and from a strictly 
logical/semeiotic standpoint, the relation that we call "giving" in English is 
irreducibly triadic.  In fact, Peirce repeatedly held it up as a paradigmatic 
example of just such a relation.  Moreover, according to his classification of 
the sciences, the principles of the Normative Sciences--including Logic as 
Semeiotic--are more fundamental than those of any Special Science, including 
linguistics.  Hence the triadicity of the relation that we call "giving" is 
independent of its expression in English, or in any other particular language 
or Sign System.

Regards,

Jon Alan Schmidt - Olathe, Kansas, USA
Professional Engineer, Amateur Philosopher, Lutheran Layman
www.LinkedIn.com/in/JonAlanSchmidt<http://www.linkedin.com/in/JonAlanSchmidt> - 
twitter.com/JonAlanSchmidt<http://twitter.com/JonAlanSchmidt>

On Sun, Apr 21, 2019 at 1:31 AM Dan Everett 
<danleveret...@gmail.com<mailto:danleveret...@gmail.com>> wrote:
Folks,

Lexical semantics is a large field and there are various positions specialists 
take on exactly how word-meanings are best to be characterized. For example, 
most scholars (not all), argue that there is no simple verb 'to give' but that 
this English verb is characterized by a representation along the lines of:

Anna gave Max a book.


give: lambda z lambda y lambda x lamba e act(x) & become poss(y,z)(e)

('lambda' is of course the lambda operator)

In other words, any verb, in this case 'give' is broken down into more basic 
components. No language is required to have a verb that is exactly like the 
English verb 'to give' but if it does, it must be composed of these finer 
predicates, so that the triadic semantics of 'to give' (English) is derivative, 
not basic (though the combinations of these basic predicates in this form will 
in fact produce a di-transitive or "triadic" syntax).

Some linguists would refer to the number of lexical arguments as the valency of 
the verb and the number of syntactic arguments as the transitivity of the verb 
(noun, etc).

And this can vary radically across languages.

For example, in the Piraha language that I have worked on for decades, there 
are only about 90 or so distinct verb roots (which are not to be confused with 
verb stems, in turn not to be confused with verbs, and not to be confused with 
lexical representations). So to produce a verb like 'bring back' (corresponding 
roughly to a single verb such as 'return', as in 'return the screwdriver when 
you're finished') in Piraha the actual verb might be: 'go-turn-carry-aspectual 
distinction affixes...' (i.e. a verb stem composed of several verb roots plus a 
number of affixes playing derivative semantic roles).

In a language like English with an extremely simple verbal morphology (maximum 
of five forms - sing, sang, sung, sings, singing) this is deceptively easy. In 
Spanish a verb would have 30-50 forms. But in Piraha (not uncommon for 
polysynthetic languages of the Americas) each verb can have as many as 65,000 
forms (sixty-five thousand). And there simply is no way to compare predicates 
ilke "give" one-to-one with any Piraha verb.

If we consider a basic English-conceived/interpreted predicate like 'give' then 
of course it is difficult to imagine that it wouldn't have three arguments, 
e.g. a giver, a thing given, and a recipient. But this simple conception does 
not manifest itself in all languages. So for example, abstracting away from the 
much greater complexity of Piraha verbal morphology, there simply is no simple 
verb 'to give' in the language. There is a combination of verb roots that 
means, roughly, 'x transfers y to z with the expectation that z will transfer b 
to x' That is, the concept of giving requires reciprocity in Piraha (a 
hunter-gatherer culture).

In the case of Amele that I mentioned earlier, there is NO verb 'to give.' One 
can find, for example, 'John apple Bill' with no verb and in the right context 
imply that 'John gave an apple to Bill.' But there is no actual verb translated 
'give' in the language.

All languages are severely *underdetermined* meaning that the predicates of the 
language do not fully specify meanings or even literally specify meanings. Full 
meanings are supplied by the cultural act of interpretation.

These are reasons that I favor the triadic system of semiotics of CSP to the 
dyadic system of Saussure. But the argumentation is subtle and detailed. And 
the semiotics has to fit the linguistics - it does not substitute for the 
linguistics.

As far as syntax goes, syntax never, ever fully specifies all the imaginable 
connections between predicates and arguments. Syntax acts as a filter on 
potential meanings, guiding the interpretation process to avoid certain 
interpretations. This active, dynamic role of interpretation is why the 
Saussurian system cannot work and why I favor Peirce's work.

Now to the syntax. If we were to assume that there are three symbols (without 
worrying about lexical decomposition), e.g. "John," "give," "apple", "Mary," we 
can think of various ways of combining them. The simplest way would be simple 
linear concatenation: "John give Mary apple." Another would be hierarchy + 
concatenation, e.g. "[John [[give Mary] apple]]" and the final would be 
hierarchy + recursion.

Peirce's semiotics is semantically recursive, though the syntax is of almost no 
concern to that work. Chomsky's grammatical proposals require both syntactic 
and semantic recursion. My own work requires Peircean recursion, while allowing 
syntactic recursion to be optional across languages.

This would all take a lot more space for me to unpack for non-specialists (i.e. 
non-linguists). Peirce's discussions of predicates is little more than a first 
pass. This doesn't mean he was wrong, but that verbal semantics is far more 
complex than he understood, because it is based on a science that did not 
exist, except perhaps in an extremely inchoate form that he helped to birth, at 
the time he was writing.

Guessing at whether predicates are triadic or not by non-linguists is akin to 
me, a non-engineer, telling my grandson, a bio-medical engineer, how I think 
the best way to design an artificial heart would be.

I have referred many times to work of mine and others on these and related 
subjects. I suggest reading a few of those (or just an introductory linguistics 
text). Here are a couple of more references:

http://www.zas.gwz-berlin.de/fileadmin/mitarbeiter/wunderlich/Wunderlich_14_Lexical_Decomposition.pdf

https://dash.harvard.edu/bitstream/handle/1/3353824/Huang_Lexical.pdf

http://www.oxfordhandbooks.com/view/10.1093/oxfordhb/9780199541072.001.0001/oxfordhb-9780199541072-e-15

https://www.amazon.com/How-Language-Began-Humanitys-Invention/dp/0871407957

And then for the connoisseur, there are grammars of individual languages.

So there is no utility in statements like "I certainly do assume that ... the 
relation of giving is irreducbly triadic." First, even in English it IS 
reduceable. Second, there is considerable cross-linguistic variation in the 
mapping between lexical semantics (i.e. with lexical decomposition) and syntax, 
or, as I stated earlier, between valency and transitivity.

Thus the English verb "to give" is ditransitive, but not necessarily divalent.

Dan

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