As you are on the general topic anyway, and since Michael is inviting 100 word answers to presumably complex topics, could somebody please explain why capitalism originated in England as opposed to Spain. I am trying to understand the connection between slavery and imperialism and the origination of capitalism. Was not Spain the most powerful nation in Europe in the 16-17th centuries and in possession of large colonies which it exploited? If so, why capitalism in England and not Spain? Or is the assumption of my question wrong? Thanks, David Shemano
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