Jim,

I don't know how else to put this but frankly.  You mix up so many
things it's hard to even disentangle them.  Let me take up a sliver of
your post:

You say rational expectations is "nothing but" an equilibrium
condition.  Next you say that it "has a very very weak story for why
and how equilibrium is achieved."  Then you say it's "not like supply
and demand."  So here it is your supply-demand equilibrium condition:
Q_S = Q_D.  Now, tell me: Where's *the story* about how equilibrium is
achieved?  The mechanism leading to or away from equilibrium is
separate from the equilibrium condition.  You can perfectly have the
form of the functions Q_S=S(.) and Q_D=D(.) be such that there's no
tendency to equilibrium at all.  How can your equilibrium condition
Q_S = Q_D change that?

You say that the advocates of the EMH "take this purely mental test
(is the model internally consistent?)."  Just so that it's clear: EMH
is not the only possible use of rational expectations, but anyway,
Don't logical or mathematical models need to be internally consistent?
 *Anything* can be deduced from a self-contradictory reasoning.  How
does that help you?

Then you you shift the argument to empirical validity.  The issue of
the empirical validity of a hypothesis like rational expectations has
to be predicated on a particular empirical application of the
hypothesis.  Particular empirical applications typically refer to
specific sets of stylized facts or data.  What particular application
are you talking about?  What particular facts or data sets?

So, if rational expectations is only "an equilibrium condition,"  What
kind of empirical test would be required to reject equilibrium
condition Q_S = Q_D?   If I showed you that at my local apple market,
at the given price and point in time, Q_S is not equal to Q_D, would
that suffice to you?  And then, would you reject this or that
proposition in Capital because to derive it Marx *explicitly* assumed
Q_S = Q_D?

You say that empirically, rational expectations has "been soundly
rejected."  Then you say that it's "empirically irrelevant."  If you
care to refute it, then you're admitting that it's relevant.  No?  If
it were irrelevant, there'd be no need to refute it.

It's "the real world that matters" -- you say -- as if postulating a
hypothesis to "close" a model implied that it doesn't.  How do people
transform the real world anyway?  Can we transform the world
intentionally without transforming ourselves and our conceptions of
the world?  How do we appropriate the real world conceptually?  How do
we grapple with it in our minds?  Directly in its concretion?  Have we
ever been able to do anything human without abstractions, logic,
concepts?

The trees are not the forest, but without trees there's no forest.
According to Deutscher, Trotsky used to say that there's nothing more
practical than a good theory.  We can paraphrase it in many other
forms: There's nothing more concrete than a good abstraction.  There's
nothing more empirical than a sharp logical proposition (one that you
can test against observations as directly as possible).  Etc.

I know where this argument leads.  Nowhere.  You can type faster than
I can think.  I just wanted possible young readers to know that
there's a different way to look at these things.  That's all.
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