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From: John Vertegaal <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> 


It seems to me that Marxism would be trying to have it both ways if
the
self-determination of its value concept, coming into being at the
moment
capital goods/commodities are produced, is applied to a capitalist-run
economy _in terms of its distributional unit of account_, as if this
were a valid observational point of departure in static equilibrium.
For
in that case, when, where, how and why does a disequilibrating thrust
enter the picture? My own way out of this dilemma is that the power to
pre-allocate cannot determine value, as investments are worth only as
much as _others_ will substantiate they are _over_ time; determinism in
terms of a unit of account is futile, when output can be spurned.

^^^
CB:  Isn't the disequilibrium right there in production in that the
workers are also the mass of consumers ( at least of personal
consumption goods and services). So, with the surplus extracted the
workers don't have enough buying power or demand to buy all they
produce. We know right there that all the commodities produced can't be
bought, that there is overproduction relative to demand.



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