Sabri wrote:

> Marginal cost means the first derivative of the cost function
> with respect to quantity, provided that the cost function is
> smooth with respect to quantity. How this is connected to
> all these Maxian things is beyond me.

It's straightforward.  But to see the connection, we need to think
beyond markets.  Abstract from markets, the divisions and conflicts of
interest in a capitalist society -- all that.  Then we'll be dealing
with the bare *material* economic process, detached from its specific
*social* form.

There we have a society trying to produce what it needs to consume and
pursue its ends.  As Smith noted, people will be "trading" there, not
with one another, but with the rest of nature.  So, what determines
the terms of "trade" between society and the rest of nature?  The
ultimate resource society counts on is the productive force of its
labor, under various guises -- e.g. "dead" labor power (aka means of
production) and living labor power.  Now, society has to produce many
goods.  If society were to economize its productive force, how would
it proceed?   *Approximately*, the actual trial-and-error mechanism of
resource allocation will have to follow the gradient.  In other words,
the terms of trade will be given by marginal rates of transformation
of resources into goods = marginal rates of substitution between
goods; marginal costs = marginal benefits.

When you fragment social production and consumption into individual
private, independent units, and allow some competition, the social
marginals will appear to the other side of each market as prices --
or, more precisely, as inverse demand *or* inverse supply functions,
p(x).

Do actual trial-and-error mechanisms of resource allocation --
concrete social arrangements like markets, households, firms,
governments, etc. -- conform to this across the board equalization?
Do they follow the gradient?  One way or another, insofar as they
exhibit some degree of historical viability, they *have to* keep those
"proportions" (the term Marx used).  What if their actual behavior
deviates largely from the direction of the gradient?  That is
certainly bound to happen, the more so the more people tolerate those
deviations.  But, historically, people do exhibit some intolerance
towards very large and/or persistent deviations.  What economists call
the "self-correcting mechanism" of markets or, in Marxist terms,
competition and the class struggle kick in at some point and realign
things.

I know that there are technical assumptions of continuity and
smoothness, convexity, etc. for the calculus to work, for an
equilibrium to exist, to be unique, etc., but that is *not* the main
point here.  Not sure if it was Von Neumann who called calculus the
math of approximation.  Art (in this case the math of approximation)
imitates life.  People do try to economize their time.  In that sense,
they behave as if they were following the gradient.
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