I think Jim you have conceded the point. In order to establish the theory of 
relative surplus value he assumes that prices are proportional to average 
labour time. The whole analysis of the super profit of the innovator rests on 
this, and the secondary general effect on the rate of surplus value by reducing 
the price of wage goods depends on it as well.

But the assumption you make "Under this assumption, if labor productivity rises 
(on average), the
average commodity's value falls and so does that of the workers'
consumption commodities."
is not strong enough, you can not deduce that wage goods prices will fall if 
average labour productivity rises.
It would be possible for average labour productivity to rise and average prices 
to fall but it might be the case that the price of wage goods remained the same 
whilst luxury goods prices fell. For Marx's argument to work the values and 
prices of commodities have to be strongly correlated.
________________________________________
From: [email protected] [[email protected]] On 
Behalf Of Jim Devine [[email protected]]
Sent: Sunday, July 17, 2011 10:20 PM
To: Progressive Economics
Subject: Re: [Pen-l] Law of Value (was Re: interesting)

 Paul Cockshott  wrote:
>> If it is not a theory of price determination what is it?

me:
> I see [Marx's] value theory as a macro-theory (so the so-called 
> "transformation problem" is much the same as the familiar aggregation 
> problem). Individual commodity-producers contribute labor to the aggregate 
> flow of value. Because value usually does not equal price (even when 
> converted into the same units) some commodity producers are able to claim 
> value (in a Smithian phrase, "command labor") that's not proportional to 
> their value contributions. But total new value = total claims on new value 
> (when the two sides of the equation are in the same units) and total 
> surplus-value = total property income (ditto).

Paul C.
>> He certainly uses it as a theory of price determination in his analysis of 
>> the production of relative surplus value.

me:
> in that volume I discussion, he's talking about an average sector of the 
> economy, for which values and prices correspond.

Paul Cockshott answered:
> No this is not tenable for the theory of surplus value at all. For the theory 
> of relative surplus value to work a saving in the labour time to produce wage 
> goods must result in a proportional fall in their price and thus in 
> subsistence wages. This is inherently an inter sectoral process.<

right. But in the main narrative of volume I of CAPITAL (after chapter
3), Marx abstracts from the technical differences among different
sectors (and what use-values are produced), focusing instead on the
class relationship between "capital in general" and "labor in
general." This means that value = price on the micro-level (as
inter-sectoral differences in the composition of capital are
abstracted from), even though this equality is true only on the
macro-level and for an average industry (with the average composition
of capital).[*]

Under this assumption, if labor productivity rises (on average), the
average commodity's value falls and so does that of the workers'
consumption commodities.

[*]  He also assumes that value = price in volume II. On the first
page of volume II: "In order to conceive these forms in their pure
state, one must first of all discard all factors which have nothing to
do with the changing or building of forms as such. It is therefore
taken for granted here ... that the commodities are sold at their
values... Likewise disregarded therefore are any changes of value
which might occur during the movement in circuits."
--
Jim Devine / "Segui il tuo corso, e lascia dir le genti." (Go your own
way and let people talk.) -- Karl, paraphrasing Dante.
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