The _subsidieary_ sense, _as_ subsidiary, is not necessarily in conflict
with the Marx's explicit definition: labor involved in the realization of
surplus value. If labor and value both disappear, such labor would not be
needed. In a minimally functioning semi-socialist society there would be no
need for insurance companies or advertising agencies; in a fully socialist
order there would be no need for checkout-clerks. And so forth. It would be
distorting to make that point _explicitly_; to do so wouold confuse
understanding of capitalism -- which happens too often anyhow through
misunderstanding of the distinction.
Bt it can't help but be an implicit point in any historical view of
capitalism.

Carrol

-----Original Message-----
From: [email protected]
[mailto:[email protected]] On Behalf Of Michael Nuwer
Sent: Sunday, July 01, 2012 6:01 PM
To: Progressive Economics
Subject: Re: [Pen-l] Profits call the tune

On 7/1/2012 1:16 PM, Jim Devine wrote:
>
> In any
> event, the meaning of "unproductive labor" is pretty clear in Marx.
> (Unproductive labor does not produce surplus-value directly.)

Kay Hunt thinks that there are two different definitions of productive 
labor running through Marx's writings. The one you identify and:

"throughout all of Marx's writings on productive and unproductive labor 
there seems to be an implicit, subsidiary definition of unproductive 
labor as that labor which is necessary only because of the 
irrationalities (from a socialist, normative perspective) of the 
capitalist social structure."

http://www2.potsdam.edu/nuwermj/Productive_Unproductive_Labor.pdf

> The key
> question is that whether or not the concept is relevant in some way to
> understanding capitalism (as opposed to merely criticizing political
> economy). I don't think that the concept helps much at all (though I'm
> willing to be convinced otherwise).

If Hunt is correct that Marx's writings are inconsistent, perhaps Marx 
too was not sure whether or not the concept is relevant.



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