On 4/4/13 2:29 PM, David Shemano wrote: > I understand the argument that accumulation of wealth in a capitalist > society is impossible without exploitation/political injustice. But why > does it matter whether the political system in which the exploitation > occurs is slave, feudal, theocratic, wage-based, etc.? In other words, > if we imagine a counter-factual that slavery was abolished in the USA in > 1789 (which could have happened), the slaves were freed, and became > exploited sharecroppers at that time, would the industrialization and > economic growth that occurred later in the 19^th Century in the USA not > have occurred? I assume you say yes and point to the exploitation, > which I understand, but your argument is then not “dependent” on the > existence of “slavery.” >
The survivors of the holocaust have been indemnified by the German government but the descendants of slaves are only twitted by the likes of Rush Limbaugh when they raise the same kinds of demands. As Ward Churchill put it, if you win a war you get to write the history. _______________________________________________ pen-l mailing list [email protected] https://lists.csuchico.edu/mailman/listinfo/pen-l
