Charles writes:

"As a further answer to David S's question, the notorious "carpetbaggers" (see 
below) were  principles and agents of Northern "hostile takeovers" and "vulture 
capitalists" . One capitalist absorbed many Southern capitals. This was 
monopolization, centralization of capital, a process that Marx noted in the 
penultimate chapter of _Capital_ as a main feature of the historical tendency 
of capitalist accumulation. This contributed to the Northern takeoff without 
slavery , but was dependent on the leftover wealth of slave-owning capitalism."

I am trying to understand the importance of this debate.  If the point is that 
a capitalist economy can coexist with and thrive in a relationship with a slave 
economy, that does not seem like a very important point.  Seems obvious.  If, 
however, the point is that the rapid economic takeoff of capitalist economies 
in the 19th century was "dependent" on its prior profitable relationship with a 
slave economy, I just don't see it.  We can only speculate about 
counter-factuals, but the notion that a "necessary" condition to the growth in 
the North in the last quarter of the 19th Century was slavery in the South for 
the prior 200 years does not ring true to me.  I don't dispute that the wealth 
created in the South was a contribution to the growth in the North, but it 
seems to me that wealth (profitable cotton, tobacco, etc.) would have been 
created if the South had a wage-based similar to the North.  And I further 
believe that if the South simply never existed, the North would sti!
 ll have grown steadily and then taken off in the late 19th Century as 
industrialization took off.

David Shemano

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