This is really cryptic.  What are you trying to say?

The question is whether Robert Conquest has ever made a factual assertion that 
has been disproved, i.e. proven to be untrue.  Not simply that the evidence is 
insufficient to establish the conclusive truth of the assertion. but that the 
evidence is conclusive that the assertion is factually untrue.

Charles suggested as an example Conquest’s assertion that the Ukrainian famine 
was intentionally caused by the Soviet leadership.  I pointed to the Wikipedia 
article because the article is evidence of an ongoing good faith debate among 
professional historians on the issue, and if there is an ongoing good faith 
debate, then the assertion by definition does not pass the test of an example 
of an assertion that has conclusively proven to be untrue.

David Shemano


From: [email protected] 
[mailto:[email protected]] On Behalf Of raghu
Sent: Monday, August 17, 2015 2:07 PM
To: Progressive Economics
Subject: Re: [Pen-l] Robert Conquest

On Wed, Aug 12, 2015 at 1:39 
PM<[email protected]<mailto:[email protected]>> wrote:
Here is the Wikipedia site “Holodomor genocide question”” 
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Holodomor_genocide_question#cite_note-69.  [...] 
I continue to see a mainstream view (Conquest) with various “revisionists” who 
appear to be in the minority.

Is that what you got out of that Wikipedia entry? If so, that reveals more 
about you than about Conquest or his critics..
-raghu.
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