Hello,
I think there is a confusion. <" is not a hook, it's an adverb, because
< is a verb and " a conjunction, and so technically <" is a partial
application of a conjunction. More generally, if you have a conjunction
C, uC is the adverb V such that [x] v V y is [x] u C v y and, similarly,
Cv is the adverb V such that [x] u V y is [x] u C v y.
This is not to be confused with a hook, which is only about verbs (to
keep it simple). You would have a hook if " was a verb.
So, to answer your question, (<") is an adverb, and 0(<")y is <"0 y
(according to the above definition).
--
Adrien Mathieu
On 10/10/2021 21:43, P Padilcdx wrote:
J noob so pardon the noob question. As the subject indicates, I’m confused as to how
or why <“0 y turns into 0(<“)y when interpreted as a hook. Looked at the Primer
and LJ and they don’t really explain the jump between the “0 to the left” and the “0
to the right” transposition when a hook. Any pointers would be appreciated.
Regards
Pete
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