Adrien has got this and I will let him answer your question.
BUT: if you are new to J, know that no one would write 0(<") in a normal
sentence. The natural form is <"0 .
Henry Rich
On 10/10/2021 4:33 PM, P Padilcdx wrote:
Thank you for the quick reply. Got the adverb part, thank you. But I’m still missing
something fundamental. If u=< and C=“, V=uC in [x] v V y, what is v in [x] u C v
y when called as 0(<“)y? Thank you for your patience!
On Oct 10, 2021, at 1:13 PM, Adrien Mathieu <[email protected]> wrote:
Hello,
I think there is a confusion. <" is not a hook, it's an adverb, because < is a verb and
" a conjunction, and so technically <" is a partial application of a conjunction. More
generally, if you have a conjunction C, uC is the adverb V such that [x] v V y is [x] u C v y and,
similarly, Cv is the adverb V such that [x] u V y is [x] u C v y.
This is not to be confused with a hook, which is only about verbs (to keep it
simple). You would have a hook if " was a verb.
So, to answer your question, (<") is an adverb, and 0(<")y is <"0 y (according
to the above definition).
--
Adrien Mathieu
On 10/10/2021 21:43, P Padilcdx wrote:
J noob so pardon the noob question. As the subject indicates, I’m confused as to how
or why <“0 y turns into 0(<“)y when interpreted as a hook. Looked at the Primer
and LJ and they don’t really explain the jump between the “0 to the left” and the “0
to the right” transposition when a hook. Any pointers would be appreciated.
Regards
Pete
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