Thank you for the quick reply. Got the adverb part, thank you. But I’m still missing something fundamental. If u=< and C=“, V=uC in [x] v V y, what is v in [x] u C v y when called as 0(<“)y? Thank you for your patience!
> On Oct 10, 2021, at 1:13 PM, Adrien Mathieu <[email protected]> > wrote: > > Hello, > > I think there is a confusion. <" is not a hook, it's an adverb, because < is > a verb and " a conjunction, and so technically <" is a partial application of > a conjunction. More generally, if you have a conjunction C, uC is the adverb > V such that [x] v V y is [x] u C v y and, similarly, Cv is the adverb V such > that [x] u V y is [x] u C v y. > > This is not to be confused with a hook, which is only about verbs (to keep it > simple). You would have a hook if " was a verb. > > So, to answer your question, (<") is an adverb, and 0(<")y is <"0 y > (according to the above definition). > > -- > > Adrien Mathieu > > On 10/10/2021 21:43, P Padilcdx wrote: >> J noob so pardon the noob question. As the subject indicates, I’m confused >> as to how or why <“0 y turns into 0(<“)y when interpreted as a hook. Looked >> at the Primer and LJ and they don’t really explain the jump between the “0 >> to the left” and the “0 to the right” transposition when a hook. Any >> pointers would be appreciated. >> >> Regards >> Pete >> ---------------------------------------------------------------------- >> For information about J forums see http://www.jsoftware.com/forums.htm > ---------------------------------------------------------------------- > For information about J forums see http://www.jsoftware.com/forums.htm ---------------------------------------------------------------------- For information about J forums see http://www.jsoftware.com/forums.htm
