I wrote:
> [a monad] has a single argument (on the left)
RE Boss corrected me:
> To avoid misunderstandings: a monadic has its argument on the right.
Whoops! Sorry about that. Yes, a monad has its argument on the right.
If a verb has only one argument, on its right, the monadic valence is invoked.
If a verb has two arguments, one on its left, and one on its right, the dyadic
valence is invoked.
For completeness: if a verb has only one argument, on its left, syntax error
is signalled. If a verb is provided no arguments, the verb itself is returned.
But I wouldn't start trying to "apply" these latter two rules because then you
have to consider "confusing" cases like 3 * ] . If you want to plumb the
hidden depths, you'll have to read the Dictionary; particularly part II
sections E and F:
http://www.jsoftware.com/help/dictionary/dicte.htm
http://www.jsoftware.com/help/dictionary/dictf.htm
-Dan
PS: I must have some reflexive disorder. When I finished typing up this
email, I proof read it, and I still had "left" and "right" switched!
I only noticed because I quoted RE Boss, and the quote and the first sentence
of this email lined up almost char-for-char, so the juxtaposition of "left" and
"right" stuck out.
For the sake of my reputation (such as it is), I will say I don't get left and
right confused "in real life" :)
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