On Thu, Jul 2, 2020 at 12:15 PM Paul Moore <p.f.mo...@gmail.com> wrote:
> My understanding is that technically "he" takes a dual role in > English, as both masculine (technical linguistics gender) 3rd person > singular and "indeterminate" 3rd person singular (because English > doesn't have an "indeterminate-but-not-neuter" gender - do any other > languages?). English has very few gender inflections at all, especially Modern English (i.e. since 16th century CE). We have pronouns, but "they" has long been used in that "indeterminate-not-inanimate" way since 14th century (different from "it"). "He" has often been used that as well, but really with the implication that a generic person is male. Other languages indeed have more complex grammatical gender. For example, Swahili 'has a complex grammatical gender <https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Grammatical_gender> system, but as this does not include a distinction based on natural sex, the term "noun class" is generally used instead of "gender".' -- The dead increasingly dominate and strangle both the living and the not-yet born. Vampiric capital and undead corporate persons abuse the lives and control the thoughts of homo faber. Ideas, once born, become abortifacients against new conceptions.
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