Hey, I am playing a devil's advocate here. from what I read in social history and in letters and memoirs from the time, the Irish and other Celtic people were not considered "white" until after 1921. The 1921 Immigration Act is considered the moment when they became "white"---but let's face it, I am sure not everybody suddenly embraced the irish and other Celtic peoples with open equality, etc. The 1921 immigration Act is considered the landmark moment since the law took its quotas and biases off of the Irish and other celtic peoples and put them on the Japanese, Chinese, and SE Europeans.
Given how he identified with the Celts, just how does that sit? One could very easily argue that here is a non-white guy (non-white by the standards of his day) who is reflecting his biases. But then you just want to apply today's standards, like most pomos you are blowing off the historical and social contexts of the times. Best, MEH Gary Romeo wrote: > --- "Mark E. Hall" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote: > >The Irish > > were not considered > > white until the 1920s, with I think the 1921 > > Immigration Act. This is > > very much reflected in political speeches, etc. and > > the like. Very well > > documented. Howard identify himself with the Irish > > and the Celts from > > quite often in his letters. What the devil does > > this make him? > > Are you suggesting that Howard thought of himself as > non-white (and identified himself and his Celtic > heroes with non-whites) until 1921? > > __________________________________________________ > Do You Yahoo!? > Send your FREE holiday greetings online! > http://greetings.yahoo.com
