Re: Splus or R

2002-03-03 Thread Eric Bohlman

Anonymous God-fearer [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
 Does anyone know how to generate a correlation matrix given a covariance
 matrix in Splus?

 Or could you give the details of how to do it in another language?

corr[i,j] = cov[i,j]/sqrt(cov[i,i]*cov[j,j])





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Re: Applied analysis question

2002-03-01 Thread Eric Bohlman

Rolf Dalin [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
 Brad Anderson wrote:

 I have a continuous response variable that ranges from 0 to 750.  I only
 have 90 observations and 26 are at the lower limit of 0, 

 What if you treated the information collected by that variable as really
 two variables, one categorical variable indicating zero or non-zero value.
 Then the remaining numerical variable could only be analyzed conditionally
 on the category was non-zero.

 In many cases when you collect data on consumers consumption of 
 some commodity, you would end up in a big number of them not 
 using the product at all, while those who used the product would 
 consume different amounts.

IIRC, your example is exactly the sort of situation for which Tobit 
modelling was invented.



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Re: Evaluating students

2001-11-19 Thread Eric Bohlman

John Kane [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
 Dennis Roberts wrote:

 At 08:56 AM 11/16/01 -0700, Roy St Laurent wrote:
 It's not clear to me whether recent posters are serious about these
 examples, but
 I will reiterate my previous post:
 
 For most mathematics / statistics examinations, the answer to a
 question is the
 *process* by which the student obtains the incidental final number or
 result.
 The result itself is most often just not that important to evaluating
 students'
 understanding or knowledge of the subject.  And therefore an unsupported
 
 or lucky answer is worth nothing.

 the problems with the above are twofold:

 1. this assumes that correct answers are NOT important ... (which believe
 me if you are getting change from a cashier, etc. etc. ... ARE ... we just
 cannot say that knowing the process but not being able to come up with a
 correct answer ... = good performance)

No it doesn't.  It doesn't assume that they're not necessary, merely that
they're not sufficient.  To take it to the extreme, would you say a
student should get at least partial credit for a correct answer if he
arrived at it by copying it from another student's paper?  After all, 
he/she *did* answer correctly.



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Re: Kappa negative, doubt?

2001-08-31 Thread Eric Bohlman

Ivan Balducci [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
 I would like to understand the meaning of  negative Cohen´s Kappa value
 (1960).  I got  it from the following data (from Dental Radiology):

 Magnetic resonance  versusFacial Pain   Total
Yes  No
 Yes 14 5
 No 11 3041
 Total  12 34 46

 Kappa =  - 0,0422

 My concern is: are negative Kappa values less important than random
 agreement or they mean something else?

They mean that the agreement is actually worse than chance.  Note that the
odds ratio is .68, which is a significant, though weak (Yule's Q=.19) 
*negative* association.  You can't expect any agreement under those 
circumstances.



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Re: Boston Globe: MCAS results show weakness in teens' grasp of

2001-08-28 Thread Eric Bohlman

Dennis Roberts [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:

 if we take the infamous #39 item ... where the options were (if i recall)...

 A. mean only
 B. median only
 C. range and mean
 D. range and median

 well, even if we accepted this item as fair ...

 a student looks at the graph ... sees that there is a bunch of stuff in the 
 boxplot ... and then sees A and B ... without too much thought ... they 
 could say, it can't be mean or median ONLY ... there must be more you can 
 do with that boxplot than that ... so, without knowing anything of 
 consequence about boxplots ... you are down to a two choice item

 thus, for even the uninformed ... we have essentially  a T and F item

 but, if you did happen to KNOW that the boxplot uses the median ... then 
 the fact that the RANGE is part of the C and D options ... means the term 
 RANGE is irrelevant to the item ... given that A and B are just too 
 restrictive (because of the use of the term ONLY) and C and D have RANGE as 
 a common element ...  so, if you did pick D ... then it has to be because 
 you knew that isolated fact ... which certainly is about as low level as 
 you can get

And furthermore, not all the wrong answers are equally bad.  Someone who 
would answer A or B must know quite a bit less than someone who would 
answer C (in fact, it would tend to indicate that they had no concept at 
all of what the boxplot represented).



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Re: adjusted r-square

2001-08-22 Thread Eric Bohlman

In sci.stat.consult Graeme Byrne [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
 In short, you don't. If the number of terms in the model equals the number
 of observations you have much bigger problems than not being able to compute
 adjusted R^2. It should always be the case that the number of observations
 exceed the number of terms in the model otherwise you cannot calculate any
 of the standard regression diagnostics (F-stats, t-stats etc). My advice is
 get more data or remove terms from the model. If neither of these is an
 option you are stuck.

It's worse than not being able to calculate regression diagnostics.  You 
can't make *any* inferences beyond your observed data.  Consider the 
degenerate case of trying to fit a bivariate regression line when you have 
only two observations.  You'll *always* get a perfect fit because two 
points mathematically define a line.  But that perfect fit will tell you 
absolutely nothing about the underlying relationship between the two 
variables.  It's consistent with *any* possible relationship, including 
complete independence.  You can't tell how far off your model is from the 
observations because there simply isn't any room for it to be off (room 
for the model to be off otherwise being known as degrees of freedom).

A model with as many parameters as observations is equivalent to the 
observations themselves, and therefore testing such a model against the 
observations is the same thing as asking if the observations are equal to 
themselves, which is circular reasoning.



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Re: independent, identically distributed

2001-07-26 Thread Eric Bohlman

Philip Ackerman [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
  Hello, 
I have a question regarding the term independent, identically
 distributed random variables. For example, suppose that your random
 variable is height, and the population of interest is adult males. You take
 a sample (size n) of adult males, and measure the variable for each subject.
 Then, if I understand correctly, you have n individual random variables,
 i.e. X1, X2, ..., Xn, which represent the one population random variable X.
 What I do not understand, is why an individual's height is a random variable
 (in addition to height in the population being a random variable), and
 henceforth, has the same distribution as the population random variable. Is
 this because you would get a different height for the same person if you
 took measurements at different times? Does the distribution of height for
 each individual consist of all hypothetical measurements you could take? I
 know that the population distribution of a random variable is also the
 probability distribution when you select one individual randomly from the
 population. Does this have anything to do with iid? Any help would be
 greatly appreciated. 

A random variable is, by definition, any function whose domain is a 
probability space.  Both the height of an individual and the average 
height of a population are the values of such functions.  The *potential* 
heights an individual could have form a probability space; the *actual* 
height of an individual is the value of a function defined on this space.



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Re: Do you known?

2001-07-01 Thread Eric Bohlman

In sci.stat.edu Monica De Stefani [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
 Hi, is there anybody known 
 Quade, D. (1976) . Nonparametric partial correlation, Measurement in
 the social Sciences. Edited by H.M. Blalock, Jr. Aldine Publishing
 Company: Chicago, 369-398?
 I would known how he calcolate Kendall's partial tau (presisely),
 please.

Kendall's partial tau is calculated exactly the same way as Pearson's 
partial r.



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Re: Normality in Factor Analysis

2001-06-16 Thread Eric Bohlman

In sci.stat.consult haytham siala [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
 I have a question regarding factor analysis: Is normality an important
 precondition for using factor analysis?

It's necessary for testing hypotheses about factors extracted by 
Joreskog's maximum-likelihood method.  Otherwise, no.

 If no, are there any books that justify this.

Any book on factor analysis or multivariate statistics in general.



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Re: Correction procedure

2001-06-04 Thread Eric Bohlman

Bekir [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
 2. There are apparently and exactly three groups; groups 1, 3, 5 that
 had the same proportions of translocation. Therefore, to compare only
 the group 2 and 3 with the control can be appropriate, can it be?
 Thus, there would be two comparisons and the p valus 0.008 (0.008 x 2
 =0.016) and 0.02 (0.02 x 2 = 0.04)would be significant. Is it right?

No, that's not appropriate, because the fact that groups 3 and 5 had the 
same proportions is a contingency of your experimental results, not 
something that is _a priori_ true, and therefore the (zero) difference in 
proportion between them is subject to as much error as any of your other 
results.



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Re: The False Placebo Effect

2001-05-28 Thread Eric Bohlman

Rich Ulrich [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
 On 26 May 2001 03:50:32 GMT, Elliot Cramer [EMAIL PROTECTED]
 wrote:
 I don't see how RTM can explain the average change in a prepost design

  - explanation:  whole experiment is conducted on patients
 who are at their *worst*  because the flare-up is what sent 
 them to a doctor.  Sorry; I might have been more complete
 there.  All the pre-post studies in psychiatric intervention 
 (where I work) have this as something to watch for.

That's why you see so many multiple sclerosis patients in the testimonials 
of quacks; MS is very much an exacerbation/remission disease, and it's 
very easy for the patient to attribute a remission to an ineffective 
treatment taken during an exacerbation.  You never see testimonials 
saying that a treatment taken during a remission lowered the frequency 
of exacerbations.




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Re: errors in journal articles

2001-05-05 Thread Eric Bohlman

Warren Sarle [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
 Telling the Truth About Damned Lies and Statistics
 By JOEL BEST

[snip]

 So the prospectus began with this (carefully footnoted) quotation: Every year
 since 1950, the number of American children gunned down has doubled. I had
 been invited to serve on the student's dissertation committee. When I read the
 quotation, I assumed the student had made an error in copying it. I went to the
 library and looked up the article the student had cited. There, in the
 journal's 1995 volume, was exactly the same sentence: Every year since 1950,
 the number of American children gunned down has doubled.

 This quotation is my nomination for a dubious distinction: I think it may be
 the worst -- that is, the most inaccurate -- social statistic ever.

I'm reminded of the bragging Scientologist who claimed that his particular 
org had at least quadrupled its membership every year since 1954.



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Re: Help me an idiot

2001-04-28 Thread Eric Bohlman

W. D. Allen Sr. [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
 Five different condiments, plus no condiments, means 6*5*4*3*2*1 = 720
 distinct combinations.

I wanted that with *fries* and *ketchup*!  *Not* ketchup and fries!



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Re: Student's t vs. z tests

2001-04-16 Thread Eric Bohlman

Mark W. Humphries [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
 Hi,

 I am attempting to self-study basic multivariate statistics using Kachigan's
 "Statistical Analysis" (which I find excellent btw).

 Perhaps someone would be kind enough to clarify a point for me:

 If I understand correctly the t test, since it takes into account degrees of
 freedom, is applicable whatever the sample size might be, and has no
 drawbacks that I could find compared to the z test. Have I misunderstood
 something?

You're running into a historical artifact: in pre-computer days, using the 
normal distribution rather than the t distribution reduced the size of the 
tables you had to work with.  Nowadays, a computer can compute a t 
probability just as easily as a z probability, so unless you're in the 
rare situation Karl mentioned, there's no reason not to use a t test.



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Re: rotations and PCA

2001-04-08 Thread Eric Bohlman

Rich Ulrich [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
  - Intelligence, figuring what it might be, and categorizing it, and
 measuring it... I like the topics, so I have to post more.

 On Thu, 05 Apr 2001 22:09:33 +0100, Colin Cooper
 [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:

 (2)  Gould's implication is that since Spearman found one factor 
 (general ability) whilst Thurstone fornd about 9 identifiable factors, 
 then factor analysis is a method of dubious use, since it seems to 
 generate contradictory models.  There are several crucial differences 

  - I read Gould as being more subtle than that.

Definitely.  Gould's point was that since the various forms of factor 
analysis generate models that are consistent with multiple, and 
contradictory, explanations of intelligence, and these models all resolve 
the same amount of variance in the raw data, none of the models provide a 
basis for favoring one theory over the other.  Specifically, if a model is 
consistent with both a theory that says that intelligence is (hereditary, 
immutable) *and* with a theory that says that intelligence is 
(environmental, mutable) than that model does not provide any support for 
a claim that the first theory better explains reality than the second 
theory (or vice versa, for that matter).  In science, it's not enough to 
say that you have data that's consistent with your hypothesis; you also 
need to show a) that you don't have data that's inconsistent with your 
hypothesis and b) that your data is *not* consistent with competing 
hypotheses.  And there's absolutely nothing controversial about that last 
sentence, except to extreme post-modernists who would claim that it's an 
inherently white male view of the world, i.e. people who are far, far, to 
the left of most of Gould's critics.



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Re: rotations and PCA

2001-03-31 Thread Eric Bohlman

Rich Ulrich [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
 On Thu, 29 Mar 2001 10:17:09 +0200, "Nicolas Voirin"
 [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:

 OK, thanks.
 
 In fact, it's a "visual" method to see a set of points with the better
 view (maximum of variance).
 It's like to swivel a cube around to see all of its sides ... but this
 in more than 3D.
 When I show points in differents planes (F1-F2, F2-F3, F2-F4 ... for
 example), I make rotations, isn't it ?

 I think I would use the term, "projection"  onto specific planes, if
 you are denoting x,y, and z (for instance) with F1, F2, F3  :
 You can look at the projection onto the x-y plane, the y-z plane,
 and so on.

 Here is an example in 2 dimensions, which suggests a simplified
 version of an old controversy about 'intelligence'--
 tests might provide two scores of  Math=110, Verbal= 90.
 However, the abilities can be reported, with no loss of detail, as 
 General= 100,  M-versus-V= +20.  Historically, Spearman wanted 
 us all to conclude that "Spearman's g"   had to exist as a mental 
 entity, since its statistical description could be reliably produced.

And Thurstone's dissatisfaction with Spearman's theories led him to invent 
the technique of axial rotation, particularly the varimax criterion 
(rotate the axes until the variance of the items' projections on the axes 
is maximized).  See Stephen Jay Gould's _The Mismeasure of Man_ for more 
details; note that Thurstone adopted varimax rotations because their 
results were consistent with *his* pet theories about intelligence.



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Re: Determing Best Performer (fwd)

2001-02-13 Thread Eric Bohlman

Bob Hayden [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:

 The most cost-effective method is to roll a die.  (See Deming.)

If the representative's performances all lie within the control limits for 
the process that's being measured, yes.  If one or more representatives' 
performances lie outside the system on the "good" side, then Deming would 
have had no problem with rewarding them (though he'd have emphasized that 
the most important thing for management to do would be to find out why 
they were doing so well and whether they were using any techniques that 
could be adopted by the others).



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Re: MA MCAS statistical fallacy

2001-01-12 Thread Eric Bohlman

Robert J. MacG. Dawson [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
   Therefore, I would not expect regression to the mean to be sufficient
 to explain the observed outcome (in which "practically no" top schools
 met expectations); and I conclude that the goals may well have been
 otherwise unreasonable. Indeed, requiring every school to improve its
 average by at least two points every year is not maintainable in the
 long run, and only justifiable in the short term if there is reason to
 believe that *all* schools are underperforming. 

This is the second time in the last two months that I've said to myself "I
wish W. Edwards Deming were still alive."  He always railed against
arbitrary numerical performance goals that were set with no understanding
of the system that produced the results and no specific plan for changing
the system to produce better results.  He'd probably be quoting Lloyd
Nelson's quip about such goals, to the effect that if you say that you
want to increase, say, revenues by 5% this year and you don't plan to
change the system, then you're admitting that you've been slacking because
if the current system allowed for it, you should already have done it.

(The other context in which I thought of Deming was the election
results.  Deming insisted that it was meaningless to talk about the "true
value" of some quantity in the absence of an operational definition of how
to measure it.  In this context, I'm sure he would have insisted that it
was nonsense to assert that this method or that method of counting
disputed votes gave a closer answer to the "true vote count" because the
latter doesn't even exist until you specify a particular method of
evaluating ambiguous ballots.)


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Re: NY Times on statisticians' view of election

2000-11-17 Thread Eric Bohlman

In sci.stat.edu Ronald Bloom [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
 So far, NOT ONE person here has responded to my
 point that the likelihood of getting into a tangle
 of some sort with a machine or mechanical procedure
 of some kind does not necessarily have anything
 to do with one's level of literacy!  (And that
 illiterate persons may function Quite Well with
 mechanical devices, c)

OK, one person has :)

IMHO, the efforts to describe difficulty with the Palm Beach ballot as the
results of "illiteracy" or "stupidity" are mostly simple propaganda
tricks: in American culture, illiteracy and lack of intelligence carry a
high degree of social stigma, whereas difficulty with machines, outside of
geek circles, doesn't (and in some cases is treated as a matter of
perverse pride).  If you're a strong partisan, you want to attach socially
stigmatized labels to your opponent's supporters.

OTOH, it's also possible to use such labels almost unconsciously.  Most
Usenet users are probably far more adept with human-machine interfaces
than most people, and it's easy for us to take a lot for granted.  We tend
to surround ourselves with people of similar adeptitude and fall into the
assumption that we're typical and that there must be something wrong with
people who aren't as adept as we are.  In a way, this is just a form of
fundamental attribution error.

Finally, I think there's a cognitive dissonance phenomenon going on
here: most of us *want* to believe that our system of elections is fair,
and when presented with evidence that *might* indicate that this isn't so,
we're inclined to interpret it in such a way as to confirm that things are
the way we want them.  And American culture strongly favors explaining
outcomes in terms of individual, rather than systemic or structural,
phenomena; at first glance, the idea that Gore voters were stupid or that
Jeb Bush directed a campaign of fraud in favor of his brother "make more
sense" to us than the idea that there are inherent inaccuracies in the
system of vote-counting.


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Re: Fwd: Butterfly ballots (fwd)

2000-11-14 Thread Eric Bohlman

Ronald Bloom [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
  Would the group  of kids doing a post-hoc experiment be
 biased inasmuch as the nature of the problem at hand may
 have become common-knowledge by now; even among kids; and
 so one would be forewarned of the error-mode in question,
 and be much less likely to fall into that mode of error?

Quite likely.

 At any rate, what inference am I being prompted to draw here? 
 That the people who claimed to have been confused were
 either (a) ignoramuses or (b) changing their tune after
 the fact?

 Is there some more generous interpretation, (c), say?

I suspect the average visual acuity of the fourth-graders was better than
that of the Palm Beach voters.

There are certain cognitive tasks that children do better on than
adults; could this be one of them?  Or could it be one of those tasks that
younger adults do better on than older ones?  Valid research questions
here, and if the latter turns out to be true, it would certainly have
legal implications for future ballots.

Did the exercise actually involve punching a hole using the apparatus
found in an actual voting booth, or did it involve filling in a
circle?  If, as I suspect, it was the latter, than I doubt the results are
transferrable.  There are plenty of user interfaces that seem to work in
mockups, but fail in production because of seemingly minor differences
(one of my pet examples is that a simulated thumbwheel control as often
seen on MP3 player software or other programs with a "skin" interface
requires an entirely different set of motor movements (and skills) than a
real-life thumbwheel; to me at least, the motor movements involved in
operating a simulated thumbwheel rather close resemble those involved in
removing a child-resistant cap from a medicine bottle ("press and turn
simultaneously")).



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Re: Palm Beach Stats

2000-11-11 Thread Eric Bohlman

Reg Jordan [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
 It's interesting that no Republicans have claimed that the ballot was misleading -- 
all the complaints seem to come from Democrats. Wouldn't the "misleading, confusing" 
nature of the ballot apply equally across the voting spectrum?

Bush's name and hole were both in the same position (the first
position) which makes it quite a bit less likely that anyone intending to
vote for him would be confused by the ballot.



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Re: probability questions

2000-10-21 Thread Eric Bohlman

[EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
 Two probability questions...
 If X has chi-square distribution with 5 degrees of freedom

 1.  what is the probability of X  3

Look that value up in a chi-square table and find out.

 2.  what is the probability of X  3 given that X  1.1

Look both values up in a table and then use your knowledge of conditional
probability to compute the desired probability.  If you're not in
posession of such knowledge, acquire it (it's explained in any elementary
treatment of probability).



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Re: .05 level of significance

2000-10-21 Thread Eric Bohlman

dennis roberts [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:

[regarding the "point biserial correlation"]
 and it certainly has nothing to do with a "shortcut" formula for 
 calculating r ... it MAY have decades ago but  it has not for the past 
 20 years ...

While I certainly agree that many textbooks convey the absolutely
misleading impression that the "PBC" is some special form of measure, I
think that the usual formula presented for it is pedagogically useful in a
few ways (not that the typical textbook makes use of them):

1) It demonstrates that a correlation problem in which one variable is
dichotomous is equivalent to a two-group mean-difference problem.

2) It shows that in such a case, the correlation coefficient is a function
of both a standard effect-size measure (Cohen's d) and the relative sizes
of the two groups.

2a) It demonstrates that variations in the relative sizes of the group
will result in variations in the magnitude of the correlation, even if the
effect size is held constant.



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Re: point biserial formula

2000-10-21 Thread Eric Bohlman

dennis roberts [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
 At 06:14 AM 10/21/00 +, Eric Bohlman wrote:

1) It demonstrates that a correlation problem in which one variable is
dichotomous is equivalent to a two-group mean-difference problem.

 maybe you can make this point but, to a typical student ... i would say
 this equivalence would be lost

As Karl pointed out, that represents a serious problem and it would be
worth investigating *why* that is.  Joe Ward, if you're reading this,
would you care to comment on how your model-building approach could be
used to help clear up this confusion?


2) It shows that in such a case, the correlation coefficient is a function
of both a standard effect-size measure (Cohen's d) and the relative sizes
of the two groups.

 great ... if you have talked about these things prior to a simple
 correlation coefficient ... how likely is that?

I was thinking that this relationship would be introduced later on.


2a) It demonstrates that variations in the relative sizes of the group
will result in variations in the magnitude of the correlation, even if the
effect size is held constant.

 how is this the case? i don't see n's for the groups in this formula 

But I see p's and q's, which have implicit n's.



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Re: How to select a distribution?

2000-10-21 Thread Eric Bohlman

Herman Rubin [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
 As we get more complex situations, like those happening
 in biology, and especially in the social sciences, it is
 necessary to consider that models may have substantial
 errors and still be "accepted", as one can only get some
 understanding by using models.

"All models are wrong.  Some models are useful."
  -- George Box

I think what a lot of people forget (or never realized in the first place)
is that a model is by definition an oversimplification of the state of
nature.  A model that fit perfectly would be of no use, as it would be
just as complicated as the state of nature itself.  As Stephen Jay Gould
pointed out in his discussion of factor analysis in _The Mismeasure of
Man_, when we build models we are *deliberately* throwing out
*information* (not just "noise") in the hopes that we can deal
conceptually with what remains.  We really can't do otherwise simply
because our brains aren't infinitely powerful.  But we have to remember
that that's what we're doing, and (again a major point of Gould's)
disabuse ourselves of the notion that we're discovering something that's
more real than the real world.  Models are not Platonic ideals.  They are
conceptual shortcuts, heuristics if you will.  They help us cope with
uncertainty, but do not make it magically disappear.

(I find phraseology like "this data was generated by that model" extremely
offensive, as it subtly plays in to both the Platonic ideal notion and the
postmodern notion that reality is purely a social or linguistic
construct.)



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Re: memorizing formulas

2000-10-10 Thread Eric Bohlman

Karl L. Wuensch [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
 I think that Bob Hayden is on to something essential here ("I noted that
 Karl presented all the understandings he sought verbally on the list. Why
 not do the same in class?").  I think of the "definitional formulae" just as
 a convenient shorthand for the verbal definition of a construct.  But it may
 be the case that most of our students assume that something that looks like
 a formula is just for use with mindless computations.  They may have learned
 this in their first 12 years of schooling, where formulas may indeed be
 presented as nothing more than mindless recipes for getting some quantity
 not really well understood.  How can we break our students of that bad
 habit?  I do frequently verbalize the 'formula' after writing it on the
 board -- for variance, saying something like "look at this, we just take the
 sum of the squared deviations of scores from their mean, which measures how
 much the scores differ from one another, and then divide that sum by N, to
 get a measure of how much scores differ from one another, on average."  The
 shorthand is really convenient, I don't know how I would get along without
 it.

  I have always thought that success in stats courses was much more a
 function of a student's verbal aptitude and ability to think analytically,
 rather than mathematical aptitude.  Has anybody actually tested this
 hypothesis?

I think the problem here is that, at least in the US K-12 system,
"mathematical aptitude" really means "computational proficiency."  In
"back to basics" math (and the overwhelming majority of K-12 math
curricula *are* "back to basics"; it's only in a few elite schools with
high-performing students that any of those educational innovations that
right-wingers claim are destroying the minds of our students have actually
been used, but I digress; see Alfie Kohn's writings), mathematical
notation is taught as a series of Taylorized (as in Frederick Winslow) job
instructions rather than as a language for precisely describing certain
types of relationships.  IOW, it's taught as a bunch of hoops to be jumped
through without really understanding what you're doing; all that matters
is going through the prescribed motions.  A student who is "good at math"
is one who can jump through those hoops quickly.  The object of most K-12
math is to turn out human calculators (something that actually made
economic sense in the Old Days when a machine to do calculations cost a
lot more than an employee doing calculations longhand).

As John Allen Paulos pointed out in _Innumeracy_, the majority of American
K-12 students know *how* to add, subtract, multiply, and divide, but a
much smaller number of them know *when* to add, subtract, multiply, and
divide.  They do just fine when given a spelled-out list of calculations
to perform, but they panic when confronted with word problems.

Over in comp.infosystems.www.authoring.html, there's a long-running and
acrimonious debate between those who see HTML markup as a *description* of
the structure of a document and those who see it as a bunch of commands
interspersed with text.  The notion that formal notation can be a
description or explanation rather than a sequence of tasks to perform is
alien to a lot of people.  It may very well be that some people simply
don't have the built-in cognitive ability to grasp the former, but I
suspect that a much larger number of people *could* develop that ability
if only they were taught how to think that way (and it is indeed a way of
thinking rather than a set of "skills").  Right now I suspect that most
who developed that ability picked it up through intellectual exploration
outside the formal system of schooling.  I'm pretty sure I did (I was a
math major but am not involved in teaching).




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Re: interaction effects

2000-07-22 Thread Eric Bohlman

Mike Hewitt ([EMAIL PROTECTED]) wrote:
: I am looking for assistance in interpreting results of a study.  It
: involved the testing of three different music practicing conditions.  I
: performed a GLM-repeated measures with three factors (modeling,
: self-listening, self-evaluation) in addition to a repeated measure
: (test).  There was a significant interaction for test x modeling x
: self-evaluation.  There was also a significant result for test x
: modeling.  Does the higher-order interaction negate the results the
: "main effects" or lower-order interaction?
: 
: Specifically, musicians who listened to "model" performance improved
: their performance more than those that did not listen to a model.
: Great.  For the interaction (test x modeling x self-evaluation), the
: modeling/self-evaluation group improved more than did the no
: modeling/self-evaluation group (reinforcing the results for modeling
: only).  HOWEVER, the same result did not occur for the groups that did
: not self-evaluate.  They improved similarly to each other.
: So...listening to a model is more effective than not listening to one
: when there is no-self-evaluation.
: 
: What then does this mean as far as the results for the test x modeling
: result?  I guess my question is does a higher-level interaction
: "overrule" a lower-level interaction?

It depends on how you define "overrule."  I'd say that your results 
indicate that there is indeed an interaction between test and modelling, 
but the amount of the interaction varies with self-evaluation.  IOW, 
you've demonstrated that the test/modelling interaction *exists*, but any 
*estimate* of it is going to be poor because it will amount to an average 
of the results of two or more incomparable scenarios (i.e. it need not be 
close to the value of *any* observed two-way interaction for any given 
level of self-evaluation).


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Re: to frame or not frame

2000-05-17 Thread Eric Bohlman

Robert Dawson ([EMAIL PROTECTED]) wrote:
: Well, yes, there are; there is no easy way to pass on a reference
: any more. It is aggravating when you want to send somebody the URL for
: one page in a big site and it is a frame on a huge page, so that the
: URL gets you only to the "home frame". Also, the same thing happens
: with bookmarking.

Further disadvantages of frames:

1) It's not possible for a browser to look at an individual content page 
and determine what frameset it belongs to.  This means that if a user 
comes to a content page via a search engine that's indexed it, and all 
the site navigation is kept in frames of its own, there will be no way 
for the user to access the site navigation.  This is commonly called the 
"orphaned frame" problem.  Promotional sites often try to solve this 
problem by discouraging search engines from indexing anything but their 
home page, but this isn't appropriate for informational sites, as it will 
render the whole site opaque to most actual searches.

At the very least, individual content frames need to have links back to 
the opening frameset.

2) Reduction of available screen real estate.  The typical use of frames 
sacrifices content area in order to keep navigational information 
constantly in view, yet the user generally only needs to see navigation 
information at the very beginning of a content page (if a quick glance 
tells him he wants to go somewhere else) or at the end (when he's done 
reading).  For a commercial promotional site, there may be some value in 
constantly keeping the company's name and logo within the user's visual 
field in order to build brand identity, but this is just annoying with an 
informational site.

3) Inaccessible content.  If you make frames non-resizable, 
non-scrollable and of fixed width, some text or image content may get cut 
off if the viewer's font sizes are different from the designer's 
(remember that on different platforms, the same point size may correspond 
to different pixel sizes).

4) The usage of frames makes it difficult to print documents.

Most of the problems with frames occur on browsers that *do* support them.



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Re: Sample size: way tooo big?

2000-03-22 Thread Eric Bohlman

Robert McGrath ([EMAIL PROTECTED]) wrote:
: 
: If what you mean is that really large samples can lead to distorted
: results of significance tests, I would disagree. The problem is not
: that the sample is too big, but that Significance tests are interpreted in
: inappropritae ways when readers assume statistical significance equals
: clinical significance.

I've come to believe that terms like "clinical significance" and 
"practical significance" unintentionally appeal to psychological set and 
should be phrased as "clinical *importance*" or "practical *importance*" 
instead.  It takes a fair amount of "statistical maturity" to avoid 
conflating the two uses of "significance."

The problem you describe is actually one of letting one's research 
hypotheses be dictated by the tools one is familiar with ("if all you 
have is a hammer, you put the cart before the horse").  "Is the effect of 
framagublification nonzero" is simply not an interesting question.  "Is 
the effect of framagublification large enough to be meaningful according 
to our current understanding of Turner-Gates pathology" *is* an 
interesting question, and the fact that the former can be answered by 
merely clicking on menu items while the latter can't is about as relevant 
to the research as the fact that student's heights can be easily and 
repeatably measured is to the instructor's grading system.  "This 
question is too hard to answer, so I'll search for the answer to a 
different question" is the motto of the coward.

One practical problem with really large samples nobody's mentioned yet; 
lots more missing data, particularly data missing *not* at random.  
Non-response, procedural glitches that wipe out big chunks of data, 
compromises when you realize you're about to exceed your budget, etc.  
The bigger the project, the greater the Murphic exposure.



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Re: adjusting marks

1999-12-24 Thread Eric Bohlman

Richard A. Beldin, Ph.D. ([EMAIL PROTECTED]) wrote:
: When my students asked me (as a class) to grade on a curve, I suggested the
: following alternative.
: "Place N chips in a can. Let them marked in the following way: 10%F, 20%D, 40%C,
: 20%B, 10%A. Let each student pick a chip and leave the class, certain of his/her
: grade."
: For some reason, nobody ever wanted to do that! :-)

Thank you!  The whole problem with norm-referenced, as opposed to 
criterion-referenced, grading or performance assessment is that it 
assumes that you can know how many people did a good job, mediocre job, 
bad job, etc. *before* any of them have done the job!

This is not to say that all forms of norm-referenced measurement are 
inherently bad, but they're generally only useful for *diagnostic* 
purposes.  Knowing that a student is way behind his peers may give you 
information on whether he has some problems that need to be dealt with.  
But using norm-referenced measurements inappropriately leads to creating 
"designated losers."  The best possible position for an individual in a 
norm-referenced assessment scheme is to be an achiever among a bunch of 
slackers; it's a better position than being an achiever among a bunch of 
other achievers.



Re: adjusting marks

1999-12-22 Thread Eric Bohlman

Michael Granaas ([EMAIL PROTECTED]) wrote:
: While more careful admissions processes would certainly limit the
: variability in students, and therefor grading, how is it any different
: from grading?  If you are going to be more careful with admissions you
: need a ranking system of some sort to determine who will succeed and who
: will fail.  This is just puts the Social Darwinism issue at a different
: stage of the process.

There's a fundamental difference between admissions decisions and grading 
decisions: the former involve allocating an inherently scarce resource.  
There's a limit to the total number of students a school or program can 
admit, regardless of how certain qualities are distributed among the 
applicants.  However imperfect the available criteria for selecting a 
subset of applicants are, you're going to *have* to use *some* criteria.  
All you can do is try to make them as "fair" as possible.  There's a 
genuine cost associated with admitting another applicant.

But evaluating performances within a class doesn't involve any inherently 
scarce resource.  There's no particular cost that increases with the 
grade a student gets.