Numbers vs monads

2012-10-01 Thread Roger Clough
Hi Bruno Marchal  

My responses are indicated with  s


- Receiving the following content -  
From: Bruno Marchal  
Receiver: everything-list  
Time: 2012-09-30, 13:58:19  
Subject: Re: Einstein and space  


Hi Roger Clough,  

I have regrouped my comments because they are related.  


On 30 Sep 2012, at 13:34, Roger Clough wrote:  

 Hi Stephen P. King  
  
 With his relativity principle, Einstein showed us that  
 there is no such thing as space, because all distances  
 are relational, relative, not absolute.  

With comp there is clear sense in which there is not space, are there  
is only numbers (or lambda terms) and that they obey only two simple  
laws: addition and multiplication (resp. application and abstraction).  

Note that with Einstein, there is still an absolute space-time.  

### ROGER: That was a later view of his, apparently in his attempt to  
restore some absolute order to the universe and to disprove QM.  
But it was an imaginary universe in which this applied, with no  
gravitational fields and curved space. So not a general explanation. 

   
 The Michelson?orley experiment also proved that  
 there is no ether, there is absolutely nothing  
 there in what we call space.  

I agree, but there are little loopholes, perhaps. A friend of mine  
made his PhD on a plausible intepretation of Poincar? relativity  
theory, and points on the fact that such a theory can explain some of  
the non covariance of the Bohmian quantum mechanics (which is a many-  
world theory + particles having a necessary unknown initial conditions  
so that an added potential will guide the particle in one universe  
among those described by the universal quantum wave.  
I don't take this seriously, though.  

### ROGER: Interesting.  I myself, although in a joking manner, have said that  
the Michaelson-Morley experiment could be interpreted in two different ways:  

1) That there was no ether that earth was moving through due to the fact that 
the measured speed  of light is independent of direction,  
(which was the MM interpretation, ) 

or, as I jokingly suggested,  

2) That the earth was stationary as was the absolute ether.  
So no directionality would be seen (that was what they observed). 

 Photons simply  
 jump across space, their so-called waves are  
 simply mathematical constructions.  

In that case you will have to explain me how mathematical construction  
can go through two slits and interfere.  

### ROGER:  Quanta are different from particles. They don't move 
from A to B along particular paths through space (or even through space), they 
move 
through all possible mathematical paths - which is to say that they are 
everywhere at once-  
until one particular path is selected by a measurement (or selected by passing 
through slits).  
... 
Note that intelligence requires the ability to select. Selection of a quantum 
path 
(collapse or reduction of the jungle of  brain wave paths) produces 
consciousness, according to Penrose et al. They call it orchestrated 
reduction. . 

  
 Leibniz similarly said, in his own way, that  
 neither space nor time are substances.  
 They do not exist. They do exist, however,  
 when they join to become (extended) substances  
 appearing as spacetime.  

OK. (and comp plausible).  

other post:  
 Hi Stephen P. King  
  
 Leibniz would not go along with epiphenomena because  
 the matter that materialists base their beliefs in  
 is not real, so it can't emanate consciousness.  

Comp true .  

  
 Leibniz did not believe in matter in the same way that  
 atheists today do not believe in God.  

Comp true .  

  
 And with good reason. Leibniz contended that not only matter,  
 but spacetime itself (or any extended substance) could not  
 real because extended substances are infinitely divisible.  

Space time itself is not real for a deeper reason.  

Why would the physical not be infinitely divisible and extensible,  
especially if not real?  

 ROGER:  Objects  can be physical and also infinitely divisible, 
but L considered this infinite divisibility to disqualify  an object to be real 
because 
there's no end to the process, one wouldn't end up with something 
to refer  to.  
  
 Personally. I substitute Heisenberg's uncertainty principle  
 as the basis for this view because the fundamental particles  
 are supposedly divisible.  

By definition an atom is not divisible, and the atoms today are the  
elementary particles. Not sure you can divide an electron or a Higgs  
boson.  
With comp particles might get the sme explanation as the physicist, as  
fixed points for some transformation in a universal group or universal  
symmetrical system.  
The simple groups, the exceptional groups, the Monster group can play  
some role there (I speculate).  
 ROGER: You can split an atom because it has parts, reactors do that all of 
the time. 
of this particular point, Electrons and other fundamental particles do not have 
parts.  

Re: Numbers vs monads

2012-10-01 Thread Bruno Marchal

Hi Roger Clough,



### ROGER:  Quanta are different from particles. They don't move
from A to B along particular paths through space (or even through  
space), they move
through all possible mathematical paths - which is to say that they  
are everywhere at once-
until one particular path is selected by a measurement (or selected  
by passing through slits).



Do you agree with Everett that all path exists, and that the selection  
might equivalent with a first person indeterminacy?





...
Note that intelligence requires the ability to select.


OK. But the ability to selct does not require intelligence, just  
interaction and some memory.






Selection of a quantum path
(collapse or reduction of the jungle of  brain wave paths) produces
consciousness, according to Penrose et al. They call it orchestrated
reduction. .


Penrose is hardly convincing on this. Its basic argument based on  
Gödel is invalid, and its theory is quite speculative, like the wave  
collapse, which has never make any sense to me.





Why would the physical not be infinitely divisible and extensible,
especially if not real?

 ROGER:  Objects  can be physical and also infinitely divisible,
but L considered this infinite divisibility to disqualify  an object  
to be real because

there's no end to the process, one wouldn't end up with something
to refer  to.


In comp we end up with what is similar above the substitution level.  
What we call macro, but which is really only what we can isolate.

The picture is of course quite counter-intuitive.





 Personally. I substitute Heisenberg's uncertainty principle
 as the basis for this view because the fundamental particles
 are supposedly divisible.

By definition an atom is not divisible, and the atoms today are the
elementary particles. Not sure you can divide an electron or a Higgs
boson.
With comp particles might get the sme explanation as the physicist, as
fixed points for some transformation in a universal group or universal
symmetrical system.
The simple groups, the exceptional groups, the Monster group can play
some role there (I speculate).
 ROGER: You can split an atom because it has parts, reactors do  
that all of the time.
of this particular point, Electrons and other fundamental particles  
do not have parts.

You lost me with the rest of this comment, but that's OK.


Yes. Atoms are no atoms (in greek άτομο means not divisible).
But if string theory is correct even electron are still divisible  
(conceptually).


I still don't know with comp. Normally some observable have a real  
continuum spectrum. Physical reality cannot be entirely discrete.





 I'm still trying to figure out how numbers and ideas fit
 into Leibniz's metaphysics. Little is written about this issue,
 so I have to rely on what Leibniz says otherwise about monads.


OK. I will interpret your monad by intensional number.

let me be explicit on this. I fixe once and for all a universal
system: I chose the programming language LISP. Actually, a subset of
it: the programs LISP computing only (partial) functions from N to N,
with some list representation of the numbers like (0), (S 0), (S S
0), ...

I enumerate in lexicographic way all the programs LISP. P_1, P_2,
P_3, ...

The ith partial computable functions phi_i is the one computed by P_i.

I can place on N a new operation, written #, with a # b = phi_a(b),
that is the result of the application of the ath program LISP, P_a, in
the enumeration of all the program LISP above, on b.

Then I define a number as being intensional when it occurs at the left
of an expression like a # b.

The choice of a universal system transforms each number into a
(partial) function from N to N.

A number u is universal if phi_u(a, b) = phi_a(b). u interprets or
understands the program a and apply it to on b to give the result
phi_a(b). a is the program, b is the data, and u is the computer. (a,
b) here abbreviates some number coding the couple (a, b), to stay
withe function having one argument (so u is a P_i, there is a
universal program P_u).

Universal is an intensional notion, it concerns the number playing the
role of a name for the function. The left number in the (partial)
operation #.

 ROGER:  Despisers of religion would do well to understand
this point,  as follows:

Numbers, like all beings in Platonia  are intensional and necessary,
so are not contingent, as monads are. Thus, arithmetical theorems  
and proofs
do not change with time, are always true or always false. Perfect,  
heavenly,

eternal truths, as they say. Angelic. Life itself.  Free spirits.
..
Monads are intensional but are contingent, so they change (very  
rapidly) with time (like other
inhabitants of Contingia). Monads are a bit corrupt like the rest of  
us.
Although not perfect,  they tend to strive to be so, at least those   
motivated  by
intellect (the principles of Platonia, so not entropic. Otherwise,  
those dominated by the
lesser quality, passion,