Re: Quantum Immortality and Information Flow

2005-12-05 Thread Bruno Marchal


Le 03-déc.-05, à 11:06, Russell Standish a écrit :


On Mon, Nov 21, 2005 at 03:39:58PM +0100, Bruno Marchal wrote:

Observation is implicitly defined here by measurement capable of
selecting alternatives on which we are able to bet (or to gamble ?).
The french word is "parier".



Well at least this isn't a problem of translation. But I still have
difficulty in understanding why Pp=Bp & -B-p should be translated into
English as "to bet on p" (or for that matter pourquoi on devrait
le traduire par "a parier a p")

For me Bp & -B-p is simply a statement of consistency - perhaps what
we mean by mathematical truth.



~Bf,  which is equivalent to D~f, or Dt can be considered as a 
consistency statement in case "B" represents some "provability" notion. 
Indeed ~Bf = NOT PROVABLE FALSE, and by definition a machine is 
consistent if the machine does not prove the false.
And when we will "interview" the Lobian machine, "B" will indeed denote 
some provability-by-the lobian-machine notion.


But here we were in a somehow more abstract (thus more easy!) 
presentation, which at this stage let completely open how "B" will be 
interpreted. In that case you can also consider the formula ~Bf, or Dt, 
 as a consistency statement, just a more abstract one.


Now in term of a Kripke frame/multiverse: Dt means "I am alive", or "I 
am in a transitory state", or "I have access to at least one accessible 
world", etc.


More generally ~Bp (or D~p) is a stronger "consistency statement" 
meaning that I cannot prove p, meaning that there is an accessible 
world where ~p is true.


Now, Bp & ~B~p, that is Bp & Dp, is a much stronger statement saying 
that not only p is consistent or possible, but that p is also 
"provable/necessary/", which in multiverse term, means that p is true 
in all accessible worlds.


So Bp means (in some world alpha) "p is true in all accessible (from 
alpha) worlds". Note that if B represents some provability predicate 
written in first order logic, then by the most fundamental COMPLETENESS 
theorem of Godel (1930, one year before his incompleteness result) it 
can be shown that Bp is true if and only if p is true in all the model 
of the theory/machine. So Bp is *the* natural candidate for asserting 
that "p has probability one", given that Bp means "p is true in all 
accessible world".


But now, by the second incompleteness theorem, the machine cannot prove 
that Bp -> Dp, because that would imply Bt -> Dt, and, giving that Bt 
is provable, this would entail Dt is provable, but for sound lobian 
machine Dt -> ~BDt, that is "if I am consistent then I cannot prove my 
consistency".
In term of (arbitrary) multiverse, it is even simpler: we just could be 
in a cul-de-sac world, where Bf is always true, and Dt is always false, 
and clearly this shows that Bp cannot, in general,  be taken for 
"probability of p is equal to 1": we need to add explicitly the 
assumption that there is at least one accessible world!


So "probability of p (in world alpha) is equal to one" is well captured 
by Bp&Dp (in world alpha).  This means (Kripke-semantically) "p is true 
in all accessible world & there is at least one possible world where 
true is false".


Of course G* knows that Bp is actually equivalent with Bp & Dp, but the 
machine has no way to know that, so, from the machine's point of view, 
the logic of the new box B'p defined by Bp & Dp, will be a different 
logic. Exercise: show that B'p -> D'p.


And then, if p is verifiable or just attainable by the universal 
dovetailer, then it can be shown that p obeys to p->Bp, and this leads 
B'p to a quantum logic. The" probability 1" pertaining to the 
"provable-and-consistent" verifiable (DU-accessible) proposition gives 
a non boolean quantum logic.


Tell me if this is clear enough. Euh I hope you agree that "To bet on 
p" can be used for the probability one, of course. If that is the 
problem, remember I limit myself to the study of the "probability one" 
and its modal dual "probability different from zero".


I must go now and I have not really the time to reread myself, hope I 
manage the "s" correctly. Apology if not. Please ask any question if I 
have been unclear.


Bruno


http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/




Rép : Quantum Immortality and Information Flow

2005-12-05 Thread Bruno Marchal



Le 03-déc.-05, à 15:14, Saibal Mitra a écrit :

Yes, but it's a fact that there exists laws of physics. I am of the 
opinion
that what really exists is an ensemble of algorithms and that the laws 
of

physics is a consequence of this.


OK.  (Except I am not sure that the existence of physical laws are a 
fact, just an inference from facts).



Whatever your starting point, you'll end
up with an absolute measure over the set of all OMs.


That is an open question for me (absolute measure still does not make 
sense for me and for ... the lobian machine).


But even if that is true it is not clear for me if such a measure could 
be relevant.


But this is again the Relative/Absolute sampling debate. Once I got a 
little bit more time I will explain why an absolute measure would need 
an S5 modal logic, the one which cannot really appear in the lobian 
talk ...


Sorry to invoke the lobian beast so often, but I'm only his humble 
messenger ... ;)


Bruno

http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/




unsubscribe

2005-12-05 Thread Jiming Yin


Re: Quantum Immortality and Information Flow

2005-12-05 Thread Russell Standish
On Mon, Dec 05, 2005 at 03:58:20PM +0100, Bruno Marchal wrote:
> >
> >Well at least this isn't a problem of translation. But I still have
> >difficulty in understanding why Pp=Bp & -B-p should be translated into
> >English as "to bet on p" (or for that matter pourquoi on devrait
> >le traduire par "a parier a p")
> >
> >For me Bp & -B-p is simply a statement of consistency - perhaps what
> >we mean by mathematical truth.
> 

...

> So "probability of p (in world alpha) is equal to one" is well captured 
> by Bp&Dp (in world alpha).  This means (Kripke-semantically) "p is true 
> in all accessible world & there is at least one possible world where 
> true is false".

...
> 
> Tell me if this is clear enough. Euh I hope you agree that "To bet on 
> p" can be used for the probability one, of course. If that is the 
> problem, remember I limit myself to the study of the "probability one" 
> and its modal dual "probability different from zero".
> 
> I must go now and I have not really the time to reread myself, hope I 
> manage the "s" correctly. Apology if not. Please ask any question if I 
> have been unclear.
> 
> Bruno
> 
> 
> http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/

Yes - this does make sense. Kripke frames are a good way of explaining
why Bp&Dp captures prob=1 type statements. I'm still not sure "bet
on" is the correct verb though, as in normal life one bets on things with
prob <1 (eg on a horse winning a race). Prob=1 is a "sure bet", but I
can't quite think of an appropriate verb.

Cheers

-- 
*PS: A number of people ask me about the attachment to my email, which
is of type "application/pgp-signature". Don't worry, it is not a
virus. It is an electronic signature, that may be used to verify this
email came from me if you have PGP or GPG installed. Otherwise, you
may safely ignore this attachment.


A/Prof Russell Standish  Phone 8308 3119 (mobile)
Mathematics0425 253119 (")
UNSW SYDNEY 2052 [EMAIL PROTECTED] 
Australiahttp://parallel.hpc.unsw.edu.au/rks
International prefix  +612, Interstate prefix 02



pgp5FSJa3RF9L.pgp
Description: PGP signature