RE: Is the universe computable

2004-01-19 Thread Hal Finney
David Barrett-Lennard writes:
 Why is it assumed that a multiple runs makes any difference to the
 measure?  

One reason I like this assumption is that it provides a natural reason
for simpler universes to have greater measure than more complex ones.

Imagine a Turing machine with an infinite program tape.  But suppose the
actual program we are running is finite size, say 100 bits.  The program
head will move back and forth over the tape but never go beyond the
first 100 bits.

Now consider all possible program tapes being run at the same time,
perhaps on an infinite ensemble of (virtual? abstract?) machines.
Of those, a fraction of 1 in 2^100 of those tapes will start with that
100 bit sequence for the program in question.  And since the TM never
goes beyond those 100 bits, all such tapes will run the same program.
Therefore, 1/2^100 of all the executions of all possible program tapes
will be of that program.

Now consider another program that is larger, 120 bits.  By the same
reasoning, 1 in 2^120 of all possible program tapes will start with that
particular 120-bit sequence.  And so 1/2^120 of all the executions will
be of that program.

Therefore runs of the first program will be 2^20 times more numerous
than runs of the second.

If we use the assumption that each of these multiple executions or runs
contributes to the measure, we therefore can conclude that the measure
of the universe generated by the first program is 2^20 times greater
than the measure of the universe generated by the second.  And more
generally, the measure of a universe is inversely related to the size
of the program which creates it. Therefore, QED, universes with simple
programs have a higher measure than universes with more complex programs.

This conclusion then allows us to further conclude that observers are
likely to evolve in lawful universes, that is, universes without flying
rabbits, i.e. rare, magical exceptions to otherwise universal laws.
And we can conclude that the physical laws are likely to be stable or
at least predictable over time.

All of these are very properties of the universe which are otherwise
difficult or impossible to explain.  The fact that the multiverse
hypothesis can provide some grounds for explaining them is one of the
main sources of its attractiveness, at least for me.

However, all this is predicated on the assumption that multiple runs of
the same program all contribute to the measure.  If that is not true,
then it would be harder to explain why simple programs are of higher
measure than more complex ones.

 If the computation is reversible we could run the simulation backwards -
 even though the initial state make seem contrived because it leads to a
 low entropy at the end of the computation.  Given that the simulated
 beings don't know the difference (their subjective time runs in the
 direction of increasing entropy) the fact that the simulation is done in
 reverse is irrelevant to them.

 Would a simulation done in reverse contribute to the measure?

When I think of the abstract notion of a universal TM that runs all
possible programs at once, I don't necessarily picture an explict time
element being present.  I think of it more as a mapping:
TM + program == universe.  The more programs which create a given
universe, the higher the measure of that universe.

However, I don't think I can escape from your question so easily.
We could alternately imagine an actual, physical computer, sitting in
our universe somewhere, simulating another universe.  And that should
contribute to that other universe's measure.  In that case we should
have some rule that would answer questions about how much reversible
and reversed simulations contribute.

I would consider applying Wei Dai's heuristic, which I discussed the
other day.  It says that the measure of an object is larger if the
object is easier to find in the universe that holds it.  I gave some
rough justifications for this, such as the fact that a simple counting
program eventually outputs every million bit number, but no one would
say that this means that the complexity of a given million bit number
is as small as the size of that program.

In this context, the heuristic would say that the contribution of
a physical computer simulating another universe to the measure of
that simulated universe should be based on how easy it is to find the
computation occuring in our own universe.  Computations which occur
multiple times would be easier to find, so by Wei's heuristic would
have higher measure.  This is another path to justify the assumption
that multiple simulations should contribute more to measure.

I'd say that a computation running backwards contributes as well,
by making it easier to locate.  Now take a complex case, where a
computation ran forwards for a while, then backwards, then forwards.
I'd say that this heuristic suggests that the portion of the simulated
universe which was repeated 3 times (forwards, backwards, forwards)
would have 

RE: Is the universe computable

2004-01-19 Thread Kory Heath
At 1/18/04, Hal Finney wrote:
Now consider all possible program tapes being run at the same time,
perhaps on an infinite ensemble of (virtual? abstract?) machines.
Of those, a fraction of 1 in 2^100 of those tapes will start with that
100 bit sequence for the program in question.
[snip]
Now consider another program that is larger, 120 bits.  By the same
reasoning, 1 in 2^120 of all possible program tapes will start with that
particular 120-bit sequence.  And so 1/2^120 of all the executions will
be of that program.
Yes, but if we're really talking about all possible finite bit strings, 
then the number of bit strings that begin with that 100 bit program is 
exactly the same as the number that begin with the 120 bit program - 
countably infinite. You can put them into a 1 to 1 correspondence with each 
other, just like you can put the integers into a 1 to 1 correspondence with 
the squares. The intuition that there must be more integers than squares is 
simply incorrect, as Galileo pointed out long ago. So shouldn't your two 
programs have the exact same measure?

I don't mean to sound so critical - I'm genuinely asking for information. I 
know virtually nothing about measure theory. Is there some well-defined way 
of getting different measures for countably infinite sub-sets of a 
countably infinite ensemble?

-- Kory




Papers of Lockwood, Albert-Loewer

2004-01-19 Thread Giu1i0 Pri5c0
I wish to read these 3 papers, which I have not found on the net in full text. Would 
anyone have them or know where they can be found?
Thanks

Albert, D and Loewer, B.: 1988, `Interpreting the Many Worlds Interpretation', 
Synthese, 77, 195-213
Lockwood, M. [1996a]:  Many Minds Interpretations of Quantum Mechanics , British 
Journal for the Philosophy of Science, 47, pp.159-88
Lockwood, M. [1996b]:  Many Minds Interpretations of Quantum Mechanics: Replies to 
Replies , British Journal for the Philosophy of Science, 47, pp.445-61



Re: Papers of Lockwood, Albert-Loewer

2004-01-19 Thread Wei Dai
The latter two papers can be found on JSTOR. I've placed copies at 
http://www.ibiblio.org/weidai/Many_Minds.pdf
http://www.ibiblio.org/weidai/Many_Minds_Replies.pdf

The first paper doesn't seem to be online anywhere. There's an online
archive for Synthese at
http://www.kluweronline.com/issn/0039-7857/contents, but it only goes back
to 1997. You'll have to find the physical journal in an academic library. 
Or try writing to the authors and asking for a copy to be mailed to you.

On Mon, Jan 19, 2004 at 10:52:09AM +, Giu1i0 Pri5c0 wrote:
 I wish to read these 3 papers, which I have not found on the net in full text. Would 
 anyone have them or know where they can be found?
 Thanks
 
 Albert, D and Loewer, B.: 1988, `Interpreting the Many Worlds Interpretation', 
 Synthese, 77, 195-213
 Lockwood, M. [1996a]:  Many Minds Interpretations of Quantum Mechanics , British 
 Journal for the Philosophy of Science, 47, pp.159-88
 Lockwood, M. [1996b]:  Many Minds Interpretations of Quantum Mechanics: Replies to 
 Replies , British Journal for the Philosophy of Science, 47, pp.445-61



Re: Is the universe computable

2004-01-19 Thread Bruno Marchal
At 17:36 16/01/04 +0100, Eugen Leitl wrote:

On Fri, Jan 16, 2004 at 02:28:27PM +0100, Bruno Marchal wrote:

 of brain and the like. I of course respect completely that opinion; but I
 point on the fact
 that once you make the computationnalist hypothesis then it is the reverse
 which becomes
 true: even if locally pi is a production of the human brain, globally the
 laws of physics logically
 develop on the set of all possible beliefs of all possible universal and
 immaterial (mathematical)
 machines embedded in all possible computations (computationnal histories).
I respect that opinion,
Actually it is more a theorem than an opinion. But I don't want to insist on
this at this stage, I guess it would be premature.

I'm just interested in theories which are
instrumental in solving this universe's problems. You know, trivial stuff:
wars, famines and death. A TOE which says: universe is information, every
possible pattern exists, observers which can observe themselves will, is a
bit sterile in that respect.
That's my point: the comp hyp is popper falsifiable, because it put
very strong constraint on any possible measure on the set of all
computational histories (as seen from any possible sound first person).
Unfortunately the notion of first person is hard to make precise without
going into the modal logics.



There's a little problem with some practical relevance I don't have an
answer, though, which I'd like to have your opinion on.
We have a finite system, iteratively evolving along a trajectory in state 
space.
We have observers within that system, subjectively experiencing a flow of
time.

I have trouble alternating between the internal and the external observer
view. So we have a machine crunching bits, sequentially falling from state to
state. This spans a continous trajectory. We can make a full record of that
trajectory, eliminating a time axis. When does the subjective observation of
existence assemble into place? The first time the computation was made?
The type of approach advocated in this list makes indeed possible to answer
such a question. Of course I will ask you, if only for the sake of the 
argument,
to accept that idea that all arithmetical true propositions are true in a 
atemporal
way (and a-spatial way too btw). Now a computation can be described as a
purely arithmetical object (to make this precise you need Church thesis 
aswell).
Such computation are never run, they exist like the decimals of PI once and
forall (by Arithmetical realism of course). The subjective observation as such
will then also exists out of space and time, and will be felt as a time 
ordered,
or as a space-time structured scenario only from the point of view of the 
observer
which is related to that computation. If you want, from each instant an 
observer
can think, that instant is now. In philosophy such a treatment of 
subjective time is
called an indexical. This is counterintuitive because people (including many
defender of comp) are used to believe in the following psycho-physical 
relation:

   (the sensation of pain/pleasure) at space-time point (x,t)

is associated with

   the physical state of some device at space-time (x,t)

But comp precludes this and forces instead:

   the sensation of (pain/pleasure at space-time point (x,t))

is associated with

a (infinite set of equivalent) relative computational state(s).

That is the space-time qualia is completely part of the sensation.






I have trouble seeing my subjective observer experience as a sequence of
frames, already computed.
No problem. It is totally unbelievable. As it should be in case it is true. 
*that*
can be proved. Such unbelievable but true proposition belongs to the family
of undecidable but true arithmetical propositions.


Is the first run magical, and the static record
dead meat?  I'm confused.
The static record (here it is the set of all true arithmetical proposition) is
similar to any block universe view in which time is internal. Note that 
this is
the case for quantum cosmology where time disappears from the fundamental
equation without precluding internal time to be defined. Remember the
DeWitt Wheeler equation H = 0.  With comp, space itself is illusion, although
that word is misleading in the sense that comp justify the solidity and 
stability of such
illusion. Actually this has not yet be shown, but It has been shown how to 
translate
that problem into a mathematical question. In case the math leads to not enough
stability, that will give a falsification of comp.



Let's bring a little dust into the run. Let's say we use a HashLife approach,
which assembles the flow from lightcone hashes. Does this screw up the
subjective experience? If yes, how?


I don't think this will screw up the subjective experience. The illusion of 
time
makes part of the relativeness of the computational states.



What about computing a record of all possible trajectories? Is enumerating
all possible states sufficient to create an observer 

Re: Is the universe computable?

2004-01-19 Thread Bruno Marchal
At 15:05 16/01/04 +0100, Georges Quenot wrote:
Possibly making you not better than them. But this not that
simple. They do not disagree with dialog and argumentation.
Rather they argue in different ways and/or with different
premises.
OK, so I perhaps did not understand you fully. I thought they did
not even accept AR, or 2+2=4 for the sake of the argument.

 If they finally have to abandon these positions due to the amount
 of evidence in favor of it, the last line of defence for their
 conception of a personal God and for a significant role for Him
 could be at the level of artihmetical realism. Artihmetical
 realism by itself (not from a distinct personal God) is therefore
 seen as evil by them. As I mentionned, they usually do not put it
 that way. Rather they argue that such a view would prevent the
 foundation of human dignity and the like.

 They make probably the same confusion of those who believe
 that determinism is in contradiction with free will.
I would say that one of the concern they have behind this is the
question of free will versus determinism (and/or randomness). You
and others might see this as making the same confusion of those
who believe that determinism is in contradiction with free will.
But there might also be more than one conception of free will
and we could also consider that what they are doing is trying to
defend another conception of free will that the one which is not
in contradiction with determinism (and/or randomness).


Look, I have no problem at all with any people open to defend
they point, I am always prepared to make evolve my own position.
But I really don't appreciate those who wants to impose any
position (even mine). By its very nature free-will is hard to define
and I quite believe there is as many conception of free-will
than there are free-person.

Though we
may or may not share this conception, I don't think that we can
dismiss it. The only thing we can say is that they cannot convince
us of it or possibly even of its meaningfulness but in the same
way we have no ground to prove them they are wrong.


No problem as long as they don't use authoritative argument.



Basically, they want to believe that we humans are not reducible
to numbers and I think that such a reductibility cannot be proved
either way.
Er... No scientific proposition can *ever* be proved. Only refuted, or
confirm. Except perhaps a tiny part of intuistionist mathematics.


Also I understand that one could feel offended by the
idea that he could be reduced to mere numbers (not more but not
less he would feel offended by the idea it could be reduced to a
set of interacting molecules) even if these ideas are considered
as just hypotheses. They want to believe (and they want to be
generally believed) that there is (much) more than this in human
beings (and incidently in themselves).
It is ok, in principle. It all depend on the way they will make us
to believe their proposition. I am used to met people who are
shocked by the idea of being a machine. I think those people
ahave just a lack of trust in themselves. If I like myself and if I learn that
I am a machine, then I will say formidable, some machine can be nice
like me. If I dislike myself, and I learn that I am a machine, then I
will say I knew I was just a stupid machine. Just to say that
if someone has the faith (or some deep faith) he/she will not be afraid
by *and* hypothesis. Those who are afraid by hypotheses are really
afraid of the fragility of their own ideas or of their own faith.



 Actually I tend to think that Godel's and other incompleteness
 result makes comp a sort of vaccine against reductionist view of
 self and reality (and arithmetic).
This is not obvious to me. Maybe what reductionist actually
means needs to be clarified.


Sure. It is a very big thread by itself.



 You know reason works only through doubt, and through the ability
 to listen to different opinions.
I tend to agree but it does not seem enough just to say it.
I guess it is not enough. As I said it is linked to trusting oneself.
This trust is given, I think, by appropriate love and education
from generation through generation. That is, a  very long work.
may be some shortcut exists, but there is probably no universal simple
recipe.



 Now with Godel we can say more,
 which is that good faith never fears reason and rationality.
 Sincere Faith can only extend Ratio, and is always open to dialog.
It seems that there exists other conceptions of what good faith
and/or Sincere Faith should be. Idem for Ratio.
Which one?

Bruno




Re: Dualism

2004-01-19 Thread Bruno Marchal
At 15:38 16/01/04 -0500, Jesse Mazer wrote:


Is Chalmers really a dualist? Although he does label his views this way at 
times, from his writings he does not seem to believe in matter per se, 
rather he thinks the fundamental stuff of reality is likely to be 
something like information which has both an objective description (a 
particular bit string, computation, whatever) and a subjective 
what-it-is-like to *be* that bit-string/computation/whatever.

It seems to me that any formal mathematical theory of consciousness or of 
observer-moments must work the same way. If you want to have a 
mathematical theory that assigns measure to different observer-moments, 
for example, you need to have a mathematical framework for listing all 
possible observer-moments, perhaps something like treating each distinct 
computation (or any finite sequence of steps in a distinct computation) as 
a distinct observer-moment. And yet, even if I understand this 
mathematical framework, from the inside I will not be sure which of 
these formally-described observer-moments corresponds to my own current 
experience, the qualia that I am percieving at this moment. So just as 
in Chalmers' system, there is a difference between the objective 
mathematical description of an observer-moment and the subjective 
what-it-is-like-to-be of the observer-moment corresponding to that 
description. There's a case for calling this dualism, but also a case 
for labelling it as a monist theory, an eliminative spiritualism as you 
described it (although I'd prefer the label 'eliminative idealism', since 
'spiritualism' has mystical connotations).
So we agree completely (from a personal conversation with Chalmers I am not 
sure he would agree, but that is beside the point). What you say 
corresponds to the 1-3 distinction. You know I tend to make precise that 
distinction by the use of modal logic.  (I mean the arithmetical modal 
logic, i.e; those who are defined from the
Godelian self-reference).




But I don't think a lot in this list adhere to dualist positions, but 
please correct me if I'm wrong).
I think there are people on this list who *implicitly* hold dualist 
positions. There are a number of people who would use the following sort 
of procedure to find the first-person likelihood of experiencing a 
universe with a given set of properties:

1. First, find a measure on all universes, regardless of whether a given 
universe is capable of supporting complex observers

2. Then use the anthropic principle to take into account the idea that 
you're more likely to experience a universe with lots of observers than 
one with few or none, assuming each universe's measure is equal

(see, for example, Hal Finney's post at 
http://www.escribe.com/science/theory/m5006.html on how to find the 
likelihood we will find ourself in a universe with no other intelligent 
life within communicating distance)

If this is just taken as a heuristic procedure, in lieu some more 
fundamental procedure that does not involve two separate steps, then 
perhaps it need not be labeled dualist. But if this is really seen as 
the way the ultimate theory of everything would work, with no more 
fundamental theory to be found, then I think such a view is committed to a 
fundamentally dualist metaphysical view. Since I find dualism inelegant 
but I do think the anthropic principle has to be taken into account 
somehow, I prefer a TOE which only involves a measure on observer-moments 
rather than universes, with this measure determined by a theory that 
already takes into account the anthropic principle somehow (see my posts 
on the 'Request for a glossary of acronyms' thread at 
http://www.escribe.com/science/theory/index.html?by=OneThreadt=Request%20for%20a%20glossary%20of%20acronyms 
for some speculations on what such a theory would look like).


I agree with you completely. Just replace anthropic by turing-tropic, 
and just accept that observer-moment
are dual to the sheaves of comp histories going through those (first 
person) moment. In my thesis it is shown than at this stage the measure, 
... well actually only the particular case of measure 1, will be extracted 
from  the modal logics of those first person moments. It is there that I 
get a quasi-quantum logic (the one I called Z1*).
I am not yet sure how *you are intending* to make precise the distinction 
between inside-view/outside-view, though. Perhaps I did not understood some 
of your point? By itself
I am not convinced the anthropic way is enough. You can remind me other of 
your post perhaps?

Bruno



Re: How to u-n-s-u-b-s-c-r-i-b-e

2004-01-19 Thread Silvia Axinescu
I hate u
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Re: How to u-n-s-u-b-s-c-r-i-b-e

2004-01-19 Thread Benjamin Udell
I'm not the moderator  have no control over this list.
The most appealing explanation of your problem is that you failed to follow the 
instructions properly.
However if, despite sending an email with unsubscribe in the subject line to [EMAIL 
PROTECTED] , you remain subscribed, why haven't you tried going to the everything-list 
page at the address that I provided, where you would find the list moderator's email 
address?
I'll save you the trouble. Wei Dai's email address is [EMAIL PROTECTED] . Why don't 
you write him a polite note saying that you have been unable to unsubscribe,  that 
you would please like to be unsubscribed?
If you have already done this  have received no reply, then I would feel definite 
concern for Wei Dai  hope that he's all right. Meanwhile, in that case, you might try 
learning enough about your browser to block messages coming from [EMAIL PROTECTED], or 
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- Original Message - 
From: Silvia Axinescu [EMAIL PROTECTED]
To: Benjamin Udell [EMAIL PROTECTED]; [EMAIL PROTECTED]
Sent: Monday, January 19, 2004 2:03 PM
Subject: Re: How to u-n-s-u-b-s-c-r-i-b-e


I hate u
I have been trying to unsubscribe for weeks and it turns out nothing.pls unsubscribe 
me from your f*g list cause I don't wanna receive any message from U guys 
EVER

Thank you!

Silvia Axinescu

- Original Message -
From: Benjamin Udell [EMAIL PROTECTED]
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Sent: Thursday, January 15, 2004 7:19 AM
Subject: How to u-n-s-u-b-s-c-r-i-b-e

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Corrected: How to u-n-s-u-b-s-c-r-i-b-e

2004-01-19 Thread Benjamin Udell
I'm not the moderator  have no control over this list.
The most appealing explanation of your problem is that you failed to follow the 
instructions properly.
However if, despite sending an email with unsubscribe in the subject line to [EMAIL 
PROTECTED] , you remain subscribed, why haven't you tried going to the everything-list 
page at the address that I provided, where you would find the list moderator's email 
address?
I'll save you the trouble. Wei Dai's email address is [EMAIL PROTECTED] . Why don't 
you write him a polite note saying that you have been unable to unsubscribe,  that 
you would please like to be unsubscribed?
If you have already done this  have received no reply, then I would feel definite 
concern for Wei Dai  hope that he's all right. Meanwhile, in that case, you might try 
learning enough about your browser to block messages coming from [EMAIL PROTECTED], or 
to block messages to you that are also cc'd TO the [EMAIL PROTECTED], or whatever it 
takes.
If you are unable to accomplish this, perhaps you should consider giving up the use of 
computers.

- Original Message - 
From: Silvia Axinescu [EMAIL PROTECTED]
To: Benjamin Udell [EMAIL PROTECTED]; [EMAIL PROTECTED]
Sent: Monday, January 19, 2004 2:03 PM
Subject: Re: How to u-n-s-u-b-s-c-r-i-b-e


I hate u
I have been trying to unsubscribe for weeks and it turns out nothing.pls unsubscribe 
me from your f*g list cause I don't wanna receive any message from U guys 
EVER

Thank you!

Silvia Axinescu

- Original Message -
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Sent: Thursday, January 15, 2004 7:19 AM
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Re: Determinism - Mind and Brain

2004-01-19 Thread John M
 Would a artificial self-aware entity emerging from human technology
 represent mind?
(depends on YOUR definition of mind, of course) - but
self-aware? does that mean that if the program calls for some math-churning,
the computer will say I rather play some Bach music now and does so?
or would you assume in that (hard) AI to program EVERYTHING what a
human (callable normal or derailed) might react by? We are back to the
infinite time comp with unlimited memory.
My limited little 'mind' does not go that far.

John Mikes

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Re: Peculiarities of our universe

2004-01-19 Thread Saibal Mitra

- Original Message -
From: Fred Chen [EMAIL PROTECTED]
To: Everything [EMAIL PROTECTED]
Sent: Saturday, January 10, 2004 10:17 PM
Subject: Re: Peculiarities of our universe


 One other scenario is that a civilization  has indeed reached this
pervasive
 state, but not in a form we'd readily  recognize. They may be
nano-lifeforms
 or microorganisms, for example. This is probably harder to believe because
 only so much complexity can be stored in such an organism, but you never
 know.

Maybe you could have trillions of these nonolifeforms that are no more than
the eyes and ears of one superintelligent being.



Re: Tegmark is too physics-centric

2004-01-19 Thread Saibal Mitra
I don't think there are many intelligent beings per cubic Plank length in
our universe at all! In fact, string theorists don't know how to get to the
standard model from their favorite theory, yet they still believe in it.
Simple deterministic models could certainly explain our laws of physics, as
't Hooft explains in these articles:



Determinism beneath Quantum Mechanics:

http://arxiv.org/abs/quant-ph/0212095


Quantum Mechanics and Determinism:

http://arxiv.org/abs/hep-th/0105105

How Does God Play Dice? (Pre-)Determinism at the Planck Scale:

http://arxiv.org/abs/hep-th/0104219


- Original Message -
From: Kory Heath [EMAIL PROTECTED]
To: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
Sent: Sunday, January 18, 2004 1:15 PM
Subject: Re: Tegmark is too physics-centric


 At 1/17/04, Hal Finney wrote:
 But let me ask if you agree that considering Conway's 2D
 Life world with simply-specified initial conditions as in your example,
 that conscious life would be extraordinarily rare?

 I certainly agree that it would be extraordinarily rare, in the sense
 that the size of the lattice would need to be very big, and the number of
 clock-ticks required would need to be very large. But big and large
are
 such relative terms! Clearly, our own universe is very, very big. The
 question is, how can we sensibly determine whether life is more likely in
 our universe or in Conway's Life universe?

 I don't believe we have anywhere near enough data to answer this question,
 but I don't think it's unanswerable in principle. Fredkin actually
believes
 that our universe is a 3+1D cellular automata, and if anyone ever found
 such a description of our physics (or some other fundamentally
 computational description), then we could directly compare it with
Conway's
 Life, determining for each one how big the lattice needs to be, and how
 many clock-ticks are required, for life to appear with (say) 90%
 probability. (Of course, this determination might be difficult even when
we
 know the rules of the CAs. But we can try.)

 One thing that you'd have to take into account is the complexity of the
 rules you're comparing, including the number of states allowed per cell.
 Not only are the rules to Conway's Life extremely simple, but the cells
are
 binary. All things being equal, I would expect that an increase in the
 complexity of the rules and the number of cell-states allowed would
 decrease the necessary lattice-size and/or number of clock-ticks required
 for SASs to grow out of a pseudo-random initial state. I mention this to
 point out a problem with our intuitions about our universe vs. Conway's
 Life: the description of our universe is almost certainly more complex
than
 the description of Conway's Life with a simple initial state. If Fredkin
 actually succeeds in finding a 3+1D CA which describes our universe, it
 will almost certainly require more than 2 cell-states, and its rules will
 certainly be more complex than those of the Life universe. We have to take
 this difference into account when trying to compare the two universes, but
 we have nowhere near enough data to quantify the difference currently. We
 really don't know what size of space in the Life universe is equivalent to
 (say) a solar system in this universe.

 In a way, this is all beside the point, since I have no problem believing
 that one CA can evolve SASs much more easily than some other CA whose
rules
 and initial state are exactly as complex. (In fact, this must be true,
 since for any CA that supports life at all, there's an equally complex one
 that isn't even computation universal.) I have no problem believing that
 the Life universe is, in some objective sense, not very conducive to SASs.
 Perhaps it's less conducive to SASs than our own universe, although I'm
not
 convinced. What I have a problem believing is that CAs as a class are
 somehow less conducive to observers than quantum-physical models as a
 class. In fact, I think it's substantially more likely that there are
 relatively simple CA models (and other computational models) that are much
 more conducive to SASs than either Conway's Life universe or our own.
 Models in which, for instance, neural-net structures arise much more
 naturally from the basic physics of the system than they do in our
 universe, or the Life universe.

 In many ways, our universe seems tailor made for creating observers.

 I understand this perspective, but for what it's worth, I'm profoundly out
 of sympathy with it. In my view, computation universality is the real
key -
 life and consciousness are going to pop up in any universe that's
 computation universal, as long as the universe is big enough and/or it
 lasts long enough. (And there's always enough time and space in the
 Mathiverse!) When I think about the insane, teetering, jerry-rigged
 contraptions that we call life in this universe - when I think about the
 tortured complexity that matter has to twist itself into just to give us
 single-celled replicators - and when I 

Re: Peculiarities of our universe

2004-01-19 Thread CMR

  One other scenario is that a civilization  has indeed reached this
 pervasive
  state, but not in a form we'd readily  recognize. They may be
 nano-lifeforms
  or microorganisms, for example. This is probably harder to believe
because
  only so much complexity can be stored in such an organism, but you never
  know.

 Maybe you could have trillions of these nonolifeforms that are no more
than
 the eyes and ears of one superintelligent being.


AKA: some distributed intelligence's smart dust?; geez there really isn't
anything new under the sun!



Re: Corrected: How to u-n-s-u-b-s-c-r-i-b-e

2004-01-19 Thread CMR
 
 I hate u
 I have been trying to unsubscribe for weeks and it turns out nothing.pls
unsubscribe me from your f*g list cause I don't wanna receive any
message from U guys EVER

 Thank you!

 Silvia Axinescu


Guess somebody should have told her that she needed to unsubscribe in all
possible universes to get off this list.

Cheers



Re: Is the universe computable

2004-01-19 Thread George Levy




I find it hard to believe that the measure of a
program/book/movie/experience is proportional to the number it is
executed/read/seen/lived, independently of everything else.

I have an alternative proposition: 

Measure is a function of how accessible a particular
program/book/movie/experience is from a given observer moment. 

More formally we can say that the measure of observer-moment B with
respect observer-moment A is the probability that observer moment B
occurs following observer moment A. Measure is simply a conditional
probability.

Thus, it is the probability of transition to the
program/book/movie that defines the measure. The actual number of
copies is meaningless.

This definition of measure has the advantage of conforming with
everyday experience. In addition, it is a relative quantity
because it requires the specification of an observer moment from which
the transition can be accomplished.

For example the measure of the book Digital Fortress is much
higher for someone who has read The Da Vinci Code than for
someone who hasn't, independently of how many copies of Digital
Fortress has actually been printed, or read and not understood, or
read and understood. (These books have the same author).

If one insists in using the context of program to define measure, than
one could define measure as the probability that program B be called as
a subroutine from another given program A, or more generally, from a
set of program A{}. The actual number of copies of the subroutine B is
meaningless. It is the number of calls to B from A{}that matters.

George Levy


Hal Finney wrote:

  David Barrett-Lennard writes:
  
  
Why is it assumed that a multiple "runs" makes any difference to the
measure?  

  
  
One reason I like this assumption is that it provides a natural reason
for simpler universes to have greater measure than more complex ones.

Imagine a Turing machine with an infinite program tape.  But suppose the
actual program we are running is finite size, say 100 bits.  The program
head will move back and forth over the tape but never go beyond the
first 100 bits.

Now consider all possible program tapes being run at the same time,
perhaps on an infinite ensemble of (virtual? abstract?) machines.
Of those, a fraction of 1 in 2^100 of those tapes will start with that
100 bit sequence for the program in question.  And since the TM never
goes beyond those 100 bits, all such tapes will run the same program.
Therefore, 1/2^100 of all the executions of all possible program tapes
will be of that program.

Now consider another program that is larger, 120 bits.  By the same
reasoning, 1 in 2^120 of all possible program tapes will start with that
particular 120-bit sequence.  And so 1/2^120 of all the executions will
be of that program.

Therefore runs of the first program will be 2^20 times more numerous
than runs of the second.