Re: QTI and eternal torment

2012-06-10 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 09 Jun 2012, at 15:42, David Nyman wrote:


On 9 June 2012 11:17, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

Such a backtracking (proposed once by Saibal Mitra on this list)  
can also be
used to defend the idea that there is only one person, and that  
personal
identity is a relative illusory notion. We might be a God  
playing a

trick to himself, notably by becoming amnesic on who and what he is.


We seem to agree on this, at least some of the time!  If we entertain
such notions, the question then presents itself - assuming one doesn't
accept, with Hoyle, that this similarly entails only one multiplexed
stream of consciousness - how only one person can be conceived as
being the subject of every experience simultaneously?


Probably because the experience of consciousness itself is not  
temporal. But from each fist person picture, as everything physical  
become an indexical (technically defined with the logic of self- 
reference) we get deluded in both personal identity (I),present moment  
(now), and present place (here). The same person get the illusion of  
being different person at different times and in different places, but  
those are the things which depends only on the atemporal relations  
between relative universal numbers states (assuming comp). Just that  
as seen from the (arithmetically, atemporally) implemented *knower*  
(first person) it looks physically and temporally structured, as the  
machine might already tell us, in the case of the ideally self- 
refetentially correct machine.


I am not sure I understand your problem with that simultaneity. The  
arithmetical relations are out of time. It would not make sense to say  
that they are simultaneously true, because this refer to some time,  
and can only be used as a metaphor.


Think perhaps to the WM duplication with delay: it shows notably that  
the subjective time is not connected causally to the physical  
time (assuming one), the belief in a past of a subject is an  
arithmetical construction, and it makes sense, quasi-tautologically,  
along the computations which satisfies or not the beliefs.


The universal person might be the knower associated to any universal  
machine, or any sigma_1 complete believer (provably equivalent with  
respect of computability).


If you recognize yourself in that person, your are obviously  
immortal. Here, it would be like accepting a 8K computer for the  
brain, leading to a version of yourself *quite* amnesic. But again  
that 8K and bigger system but equivalent, or extending them, pullulate  
in arithmetic. Consciousness' differentiation seems unavoidable there  
too. Does this put some light on the question?


Bruno


http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: Questions about simulations, emulations, etc.

2012-06-10 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 09 Jun 2012, at 20:57, Evgenii Rudnyi wrote:


On 09.06.2012 20:27 Quentin Anciaux said the following:

Le 9 juin 2012 20:22, Evgenii Rudnyiuse...@rudnyi.ru  a écrit :




...




No, I have meant

a) simulated computer

b) simulated myself (but not in a)

Now I consider a) and b). This is after all some instructions
executed by

some Turing machine. It seems that there is no difference. How would
you define the difference then in this case?




If you are running at the same level (inside the same simulation,
meaning what is simulating the computer is also simulating you and
the world you share) then you're able to affect the computer.


And computer in a way cannot affect me. This what I actually wanted  
to say in the beginning. Even if we assume simulation hypothesis,  
nothing changes and the business continues as usual. On Monday for  
example it is necessary to go to work.


On the other hand, if I understand Bruno's theorem correctly a) and  
b) imply quite different things. While a) brings no problem, b)  
leads to


arithmetic - mind - physics

That is, I am not sure if according to Bruno, mind simulation in  
simulation is possible.


Yes it is possible. And worth, it is necessary the case.

Let me explain why.

Let us fix a universal system, FORTRAN for example, or c++, game of  
life, arithmetic, S  K, etc.


Let us enumerate the one argument programs: p_i, and let us called  
phi_i the partial (that include the total) corresponding computable  
functions. This is equivalent of choosing a base in linear algebra. We  
can associate a number to each partial computable functions.


A universal number (a computer) is a number u such that phi_u(x, y) =  
phi_x(y). x is the program, y is the data and u is the computer. In  
that case we can say that u emulates the program x (first  
approximation of a definition to be sure).


Now, phi_u, to be in the phi_i, needs to be a one variable function,  
so we better have a good computable bijection between NxN and N. With  
this you can see that a universal emulation can itself be emulated by  
yet another universal number, and you can easily understand that the  
universal dovetailer generates the infinitely many layers of  
simulations, showing that they correspond to true arithmetical  
relations. They are solution of a universal diophantine equation. We  
cannot avoid them in the measure problem.


The key is that below our substitution level we belong to infinities  
computations/emulation, defining our physical realities, and above the  
substitution level, it can (re)define our identities. We never know  
our level of substitution, but we can know that below, it is a matter  
of experience, and above it is a matter of private opinion, something  
like that.


In UD*, or in a tiny part of arithmetic,  there are a lot of even  
infinite trails of simulation in simulation in simulation, etc. with  
variants etc.


Bruno



http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: inside vs outside

2012-06-10 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 09 Jun 2012, at 21:53, Abram Demski wrote:


Bruno, Wei,

I've been reading the book saving truth from paradox on and off,  
and it has convinced me of the importance of the inside view way  
of doing foundations research as opposed to the outside view.


At first, I simply understood Field to be referring to the language  
vs meta-language distinction. He criticises other researchers for  
taking the outside view of the system they are describing, meaning  
that they are describing the theory from a meta-language which must  
necessarily exist outside the theory.


Since Gödel we know that for rich theory we can embed the metatheory  
in the theory. That is what Gödel's provability predicate does, and  
what Kleene predicate does for embedding the reasoning on the Turing  
machines, and the phi_i, in terms of number relations.


Arithmetic contains its own interpreter(s).





I thought that his complaint was frivolous; of course you need to  
describe a theory of truth via a meta-language. That is part of the  
structure of the problem. Yes, it makes the entire theory dubious;  
but without a concrete alternative, the only reply to this is such  
is life!. So I was confused when he refused to take other logicians  
literally (accepting the logic which they put forward as the logic  
which they put forward), and instead claimed that their logic  
corresponded to the 1-higher theory (the metalanguage in which they  
describe their theory).


At some point, though, the technique clicked for me, and I  
understood that he was saying something very different. For example,  
the outside view of Kripke's theory of truth says that truth is a  
'partial' notion, with an extension and an anti-extension, but also  
a 'gap' between the two where it is undefined. (It is a gap theory.)


I am not sure I understand well.



On the inside view, however, it does not make this kind of  
commitment; it does not claim there is a gap. What the theory says  
about itself makes no commitment about the status of the (would-be)  
gap sentences; they could well be both true and false. The outside  
view will insist on giving a semantic status to these, but this is  
pathological; we cannot develop a theory of truth in this way (we  
know that it leads to paradox).


Instead, we need to take the inside view seriously, and develop  
theories from that perspective.


This generally means taking the truth predicate as basic, and  
looking for deduction rules about it which capture what we want,  
rather than trying to define its semantics in a set-theoretic or  
otherwise external way.


I don't feel that I have an excellent grasp of this technique,  
though. So, I'm looking for feedback. Do you have any thoughts or  
advice here?


Better! A theory. Not mine, but the one by the rich universal  
machine itself (that I call Löbian). Basically a machine is Löbian if  
it is universal (in Church Turing sense) and can prove (in a technical  
weak sense) that she is universal. Basically it is a universal system  
+ an induction axiom (or axiom scheme). Examples are Peano Arithmetic,  
ZF, etc.
The machine's inside view is already unameable by the machine, it is a  
time creator, (in some semantics), a kind of intuitionist knower.  
Yes, it is important to take its view too.


All löbian machines are able to distinguish two forms of self- 
reference: a third person one, and a first person one. And other  
modalities, notably those needed to extract physics from arithmetic  
(as UDA enforced).


The computationalist hypothesis suggest using computer science and  
mathematical logic for dealing with the complex aspects of relative  
self-reference, in apparent simple ideal case. I think.


Bruno






Wei,

Concerning your undefinability of induction paradox...

In this view, the answer is more or less there can be no truth  
predicate which acts like that... truth is an open notion, much  
like ordinals are an open notion.


To some extent, this is an acceptance of the fact that if an alien  
showed up claiming to have a box which determined the truth or  
falsehood of any statement, we should ascribe this 0 probability; or  
rather, we won't fully understand the statement (there is no way to  
say such a thing; the idea is incoherent). We can ascribe some  
probability to much weaker statements concerning the connection  
between the output of the box and the truth of statements, however.  
In particular, probability can be ascribed to any partial notion of  
truth which can be discussed.


This feels like accepting the problem statement as a statement of  
the solution. The problem is that there is no notion of semantics  
for which allows a system to refer to all its own semantic values.  
The 'solution' is to say that semantics simply isn't like  
that (there is no 'completion' of the semantics). If we state these  
formally, the problem and the solution are the same statement; it  
seems like we've made no progress! Again, any 

Re: QTI and eternal torment

2012-06-10 Thread David Nyman
On 10 June 2012 17:26, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

 I am not sure I understand your problem with that simultaneity. The
 arithmetical relations are out of time. It would not make sense to say that
 they are simultaneously true, because this refer to some time, and can
 only be used as a metaphor.

I agree with almost everything you say.  I would say also that the
moments of experience, considered as a class, are themselves out of
time.  What it takes to create (experiential) time - the notorious
illusion - is whatever is held to be responsible for the irreducible
mutual-exclusivity of such moments, from the perspective of the
(universal) knower.  Hoyle does us the service of making this
mutual-exclusivity explicit by invoking his light beam to illuminate
the pigeon holes at hazard; those who conclude that this function is
redundant, and that the structure of pigeon holes itself somehow does
the work of creating personal history, owe us an alternative
explanation of the role of Hoyle's beam.

I understand, of course, that these are just ways of thinking about a
state of affairs that is ultimately not finitely conceivable, but all
the same, I think there is something that cries out for explanation
here and Hoyle is one of the few to have explicitly attempted to
address it.

David

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One subject

2012-06-10 Thread Pierz
I'm starting this as a new thread rather than continuing under 'QTI and eternal 
torment', where this idea came up, because it's really a new topic. 
It seems to me an obvious corollary of comp that there is in reality (3p) only 
one observer, a single subject that undergoes all possible experiences. In a 
blog post I wrote a while back (before I learned about comp) I put forward this 
'one observer' notion as the only solution to a paradox that occurred to me 
when thinking about the idea of cryogenic freezing and resuscitation. I started 
wondering how I could know whether the consciousness of the person being 
resuscitated was the 'same consciousness' (whatever that means) as the 
consciousness of the person who was frozen. That is, is a new subject created 
with all your memories (who will of course swear they are you), or is the new 
subject really you? 
This seems like a silly or meaningless point until you ask yourself the 
question, If I am frozen and then cryogenicaly resurrected should I be scared 
of bad experiences the resurrected person might have? Will they be happening 
to *me*, or to some person with my memories and personality I don't have to 
worry about? It becomes even clearer if you imagine dismantling and 
reassembling the brain atom by atom. What then provides the continuity between 
the pre-dismantled and the reassembled brain? It can only be the continuity of 
self-reference (the comp assumption) that makes 'me' me, since there is no 
physical continuity at all. 
But let's say the atoms are jumbled a little at reassembly, resulting in a 
slight personality change or the loss of some or all memories. Should I, about 
to undergo brain disassembly and reassembly, be worried about experiences of 
this person in the future who is now not quite me? What then if the reassembled 
brain is changed enough that I am no longer recognizable as me? Following this 
through to its logical conclusion, it becomes clear that the division between 
subjects is not absolute. What separates subjectivities is the contents of 
consciousness (comp would say the computations being performed), not some kind 
of other mysterious 'label' or identifier that marks certain experiences as 
belonging to one subject and not another (such as, for instance, being the 
owner of a specific physical brain).
 I find this conclusion irresistible - and frankly terrifying. It's like 
reincarnation expanded to the infinite degree, where 'I' must ultimately 
experience every subjective experience (or at least every manifested subjective 
experience, if I stop short of comp and the UD). What it does provide is a 
rationale for the Golden Rule of morality. Treat others as I would have them 
treat me because they *are* me, there is no other! If we really lived with the 
knowledge of this unity, if we grokked it deep down, surely it would change the 
way we relate to others. And if it were widely accepted as fact, wouldn't it 
lead to the optimal society, since 
everyone would know that they will be/are on the receiving end of every action 
they commit? Exploitation is impossible since you can only steal from yourself. 
Of course, if comp is true, moral action becomes meaningless in one sense since 
everything happens anyway, so you will be on the receiving end of all actions, 
both good and bad.

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