Re: Why is there something rather than nothing? From quantum theory to dialectics?

2014-10-29 Thread Peter Sas
I wonder if you know the work of the French philosopher Badiou. He has 
built an entire ontology on set theory, taking the empty set (or the void 
as dramatically calls it) as his most fundamental concept. He takes over 
the Von Neumann derivation of math in terms of set theory and then adopts a 
kind of mathematical Platonist attitude, saying that all being is 
mathematical and hence 'founded on the void'. I have grappled with his 
theory for a while but concluded that although Badiou distances himself 
from Derrida etc. he doesn't escape the 'French disease' in philosophy: 
using impressive sounding but in the end arbitary terminology to cover up 
the logical gaps in his theory. Obviously I don't want to say that all 
French philosophers are like that, but the likes of Derrida, Deleuze etc. 
have done so much damage in philosophy, I feel. Badiou pretends to be so 
scientific and stringent with his set-theoretic and mathematical ontology, 
but in the end he is just as arbitrary and pretentious as Derrida in my 
view. How do you perceive Badiou?

Nevertheless, I could not resist buying Badiou's book on category theory 
(Mathematics of the transcendental), especially after your suggestions 
about category theory. But then I read on the inside flap that this book 
is essential reading for his many followers. And the I felt the need to 
vomit...

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Re: Why is there something rather than nothing? From quantum theory to dialectics?

2014-10-29 Thread LizR
I agree with you about Derrida  so on. I bought quite a few of their books
in the 80s (10,000 plateaus  so on) and (fairly) rapidly worked out that
they were talking complete rubbish (even without help from Alain Sokal...)
I'm quite pleased to say.

On 29 October 2014 21:04, Peter Sas peterjacco...@gmail.com wrote:

 I wonder if you know the work of the French philosopher Badiou. He has
 built an entire ontology on set theory, taking the empty set (or the void
 as dramatically calls it) as his most fundamental concept. He takes over
 the Von Neumann derivation of math in terms of set theory and then adopts a
 kind of mathematical Platonist attitude, saying that all being is
 mathematical and hence 'founded on the void'. I have grappled with his
 theory for a while but concluded that although Badiou distances himself
 from Derrida etc. he doesn't escape the 'French disease' in philosophy:
 using impressive sounding but in the end arbitary terminology to cover up
 the logical gaps in his theory. Obviously I don't want to say that all
 French philosophers are like that, but the likes of Derrida, Deleuze etc.
 have done so much damage in philosophy, I feel. Badiou pretends to be so
 scientific and stringent with his set-theoretic and mathematical ontology,
 but in the end he is just as arbitrary and pretentious as Derrida in my
 view. How do you perceive Badiou?

 Nevertheless, I could not resist buying Badiou's book on category theory
 (Mathematics of the transcendental), especially after your suggestions
 about category theory. But then I read on the inside flap that this book
 is essential reading for his many followers. And the I felt the need to
 vomit...

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Re: Do today's philosophers even think about the existence of God anymore?

2014-10-29 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 27 Oct 2014, at 21:08, meekerdb wrote:


On 10/27/2014 9:53 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:
What remains amazing is the negative amplitude of probability, but  
then that is what I show being still possible  thanks to the  
presence of an arithmetical quantization in arithmetic, at the  
place we need the probabilities.


I don't recall you having shown that.  Can you repeat it.





By a result of Goldblatt, you have that QL proves A iff the modal  
logic B proves some transformation T(A), defined by


T(p) = []p(Which Rawling and Selesnick called the quantization  
of p), p atomical sentence (that is arithmetical sentence without  
quantifier and variable, like s(s(0) + s(0) = s(s(s(0))).

T(A  B) = T(A)  T(B)
T(~A) = [] T(~A)

This makes the modal logic B a classical modal rendering of quantum  
logic, a bit llike Gödel and others saw that S4 was a classical  
epistemological rendering of intuitionist logic.
The Kripke semantics of B is symmetry and reflexivity: B's main axiom  
are A - []A, and []A - A, the accessibility relation is  
symmetrical and reflexive. Note that the complement relation with  
alpha R beta iff NOT (alpha R beta) gives a proximity relation, and an  
abstract orthogonality condition. If the arithmetic material  
hypostases, defining the probability one for the FPI on the sigma_1  
sentences (roughly, the UD*) dis not have such an abstract  
orthogonality conditions, then classical comp as I defined it (in  
AUDA) would be refuted.
Now, I showed that the arithmetical hypostases (S4Grz1, X1*, Z1*) does  
verify that orthogonality conditions, on the sigma_1 sentences,  
despite the modal logic is bot a weakening of B (we loss the closure  
for the necessitation rule), and a strengthening we get new axioms  
(like we get the new Grz for the internal solipsist, the first person,  
or Pltinus' universal soul).


Those logic verifies the two main axiom of B, and suggest that the  
bottom physics, which sums on all sigma_1 sentences, is indeed  
symmetrical, linear, reflexive, ... let us say that we can hope for  
some Gleason theorem there, which would determine entirely the  
measure on the directly accessible sigma_1 state.




Do you show that the Hilbert space of QM must be over the complex  
numbers?  Or does your proof allow quaternion or octonion QM?


You know I share with Ramanujan (and thanks to him) some love for the  
number 24, so I would be happy if the Octonion, a famous divisor of 24  
could play some rôle, but that, I would say, has to wait for the  
Gleason theorem of the introspective physics of the universal, and  
Löbian, machine.


I do have argument for octonions playing some key role, but I keep  
them for myself, because if the number theorist find physics before  
the theologians, theology could sleep again for one millennium or  
more. I can imagine a number theoreticalism capable of eliminating  
consciousness too (thats' why I am reassured that David Nyman avoided  
that trap consciously or explicitly so).


Come on, Brent, the greeks discovered the Automobile of Science, to  
explore deep questions, they use it from
-500 to +500. After that it was declared illegal in Occident, so to  
speak. We get half of it back at the enlightenment period, and I am  
just pointing that computer science + the computationalism offers the  
second half, or at least a second half. I am only the guy who tries to  
restart the Automobile, that is science including theology, the mother  
of math and physics (before the political pseudo-religious  
recuperation).


You ask me if QM is octonionic ? There are now two questions: what  
does nature say? and what does the universal machine see in arithmetic  
from inside. And we can compare, even if today it requires hard math  
like the modal logic of arithmetical (and non arithmetical) self- 
references. Good textbooks exists, as I have given references.


Keep in mind we try to figure what happens, not how to make bombs and  
rockets. We want just a coherent picture of the possible whole, and  
this without eliminating persons, consciousness, etc.


Bruno




Brent

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Re: MGA revisited paper + supervenience

2014-10-29 Thread John Clark
On Tue, Oct 28, 2014 at 8:26 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

 If recombine just means exhibiting interference then I'd say it's just
 a semantic quibble.  When a photon goes thru both of Young's slits and
 interferes with itself I'd say that happens in one world.


The universe splits because there is a difference between them,  the photon
(or electron) goes through the left slit in one universe and the right slit
in another universe.  If after that the photons hit a photographic plate
(or just a brick wall) both photons are destroyed and there is no longer
any difference between the 2 universes so they recombine, but if we examine
history we will see evidence that the photon went through the left slit
only and evidence that it went through the right slit only and this causes
interference bands. If we hadn't put a photographic plate (or a brick wall)
in the photon's path and just let them continue into infinite space the 2
universes would always be different and so never recombine. For statistical
reasons we only see interference if the 2 universes are almost identical;
although it's logically possible that the universe where Lincoln was not
assassinated and our universe could both evolve into a state that was
identical and so recombine and cause interference it's astronomically
unlikely. Actually astronomically is far too weak a word but infinitely is
too strong, this my be the very rare occurrence where a new word might be
useful.

  John K Clark

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Re: MGA revisited paper + supervenience

2014-10-29 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 29 Oct 2014, at 00:15, meekerdb wrote:


On 10/28/2014 8:14 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 27 Oct 2014, at 20:58, meekerdb wrote:


On 10/27/2014 3:38 AM, LizR wrote:
It would be nice if Mr Clark would EITHER stop joining in with  
discussions just to say that he doesn't care about comp, OR state  
what he agrees or disagrees with in Bruno's stated argument.


Just saying it's obviously wrong doesn't really cut it. So far  
the only real (non-sarcastic, non-insult-based) objection I've  
heard comes down to a semantic quibble to do with redefining our  
concept of an individual person. This is exactly the same  
redefinition that was brought up by Everett in 1957. It isn't in  
itself contentious - a physicist who believes the MWI to be  
correct will come to the same conclusions about indeterminacy  
that someone using Bruno's matter transmitter would - that it's a  
phenomenon experienced from a first person perspective because of  
the person in question being split into two copies. The phenomena  
actually map onto each other, because both comp and Everett allow  
for the possibility that from the third person viewpoint the  
duplication could be observed - quantum computers rely on  
precisely that fact.


Quantum computers (of the circuit type) rely on interference to  
pick out the right solution.  Interference implies 
superposition in the same world.


Only if you isolate the subsystem well enough. Imagine that I can  
isolate my room, where I am, sufficiently, and in that room I  
succeed in isolating schroedinger cat (prepared in the alive + dead  
state) in a box. Then, in my isolated room I look at the cat  
(measuring in the alive/dead base) .QM description is that when I  
do that measurement, I put myself in the superposition alive +  
dead. It follows from the linearity of evolution and of the tensor  
product. You might say that I am in that superposed state in *one*  
world. But if my room is not sufficiently well isolated, or more  
normally when I go out of that room, announcing with some joy that  
the cat is alive, well soon enough, the environment (the building  
with that room, then city, and you coming for a visit) get in the  
superposition history of the earth with that Shroedinger car alive  
+ history of the earth with that Shroedinger car dead.
Would you still say that it is a superposition in *one* world. Yes,  
the differentiation of the galaxies will follows, at the speed of  
light, and I guess there will be two Milky ways colliding with  
Andromeda, one with archive describing the fact that that  
Schroedinger cat was alive, and one with the fact that that  
Schroedinger cat is dead. Would you still say that there is one  
world? I like to define a physical world (in the quantum theory) by  
a set of objects/events close for interaction. That makes the many  
world the literal interpretation of QM. Without collapse, I don't  
see how the term of the superposition can ever disappear.


The superposition doesn't disappear but it becomes dispersed into  
the environmental degrees of freedom, so FAPP there are separate  
classical worlds.  My point is that superposition is not a defining  
attribute of different worlds, it's relative incoherence so subspaces.


I have no problem with that. And despite Everett's own opinion on  
this, I think it was a good idea to call that the relative state  
theory, instead of the many worlds, which can lead to naïve view of  
multiple aristotelian worlds, which would be doing the aristotelian  
error an infinity of times.


In arithmetic also, all we have are the relative states, and their  
relative measures. (cf the ASSA/RSSA old discussion, a recurrent theme  
on the list).










I highly recommend Scott Aaronson's blog http://www.scottaaronson.com/blog/ 
 , for straight talk about quantum computing (his book Quantum  
Computing Since Democritus is also very good).


What is his position on Everett?


(2) One of the first questions anyone asks on learning quantum  
mechanics is, “OK, but do all these branches of the wavefunction  
really exist? or are they just mathematical constructs used to  
calculate probabilities?” Roughly speaking, Many-Worlders would say  
they do exist, while Copenhagenists would say they don’t.



Many worlders, when wise avoid the questions, they do exist in the  
formalism, so if the tehiry is correct, they can't just simply  
disappear.


But it is false or ambiguous to say that the Copenhagenists would say  
they don't believe that they exist. They believe indeed that one of  
them exist!  That is why they need a mechanism to make disappearing  
some term in the wave, and they invented the collapse, which is simply  
a way to say that they believe that QM does not apply to  them, or  
the measuring apparatus, or consciousness, etc. They did not find any  
evidence that there is a collapse, nor any senseful criteria for  
something not obeying QM..






Of course, part of what 

Re: MGA revisited paper + supervenience

2014-10-29 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 29 Oct 2014, at 01:12, meekerdb wrote:


On 10/28/2014 4:12 PM, LizR wrote:

On 28 October 2014 22:52, Richard Ruquist yann...@gmail.com wrote:
Liz,

I define consciousness as my ability to make choices.

That is an unusual definition, and not one I think most people  
would agree with, although they'd probably agree it's involved in  
consciousness. But yes, using that definition the MWI makes  
consciousness an illusion.


(Most people call the ability to make choices free will. That is an  
illusion under the MWI, and indeed most theories of physics.)


Bruno responds with the Gaussian  (somewhat like measure theory)
which suggests that some worlds are less important than this one.

I don't know about Bruno but David Deutsch appears to think that  
some decisions will have a much higher measure in the multiverse  
than others. So, say, 99.99% of me (so to speak) will have coffee  
and only 0.01% will decide on a whim to have a milkshake. (And  
0.1% will think so hard about it that they  
spontaneously combust.)


That raises the question of how the multiple-worlds split.  Does the  
0.01% imply that the world must split into 1e5 copies, in one of  
which you have a milkshape?  Or does it require that it must split  
1e15 ways so that you can spontaneously combust in one.  I think  
Bruno's UD tries to take care of this by have infinitely many  
threads thru the occasion of your whim.  But this is different  
compared to the Helsinki/Moscow/Washington thought experiment.  In  
that case the Moscow and Washington guys are created.  But in the  
UD's infinite threads the infinite threads all exist timelessly.


In the DeWitt-Wheeler equation, time disappears too. In the WM- 
duplication, guys are created relatively to you, and *that* happens  
infinitely often in the UD-computations. Like Einstein said, time is  
an illusion, although a persistent one.


Neither Everett, nor Deutsch, nor computationalism solved all problem,  
we just get the tools to formulate them.


Wise many-worlders will not pretend that no collapse explains all  
weirdness. They just feel like the collapse itself is just too much  
weird than to be accepted. Here too I am close to Einstein view: I  
don't see what it could mean to abandon 3p- determinacy and 3p- 
locality in the physical realm: God does not play dice, and there are  
no action at a distance, although it might look like that, but only if  
we abstract away some terms or the superposition. In quantum  
teleportation, Alice has to send some bit of classical information to  
tell him which part of the multiple terms wave they share.


Bruno





Brent

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Re: MGA revisited paper + supervenience

2014-10-29 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 29 Oct 2014, at 01:26, meekerdb wrote:


On 10/28/2014 4:30 PM, LizR wrote:

On 29 October 2014 06:20, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:
On 10/27/2014 11:47 PM, LizR wrote:
As far as I can make out from David Deutsch's explanations qcs  
involve a temporary splitting into two or more worlds, (or the  
equivalent - differentiation or whatever).
But to say the split is temporary is to violate the idea that  
they are separate worlds.


But worlds are allowed to recombine in the Everett interpretation.  
In fact they aren't even well defined, only approximations to  
what's actually there, at least according to DD (and as usual  
assuming I understood him correctly).


If recombine just means exhibiting interference then I'd say it's  
just a semantic quibble.  When a photon goes thru both of Young's  
slits and interferes with itself I'd say that happens in one world.


I would say that below your substitition lebel, there is an infinity  
of worlds/computations. It is just that your relevant brain state for  
your consciousness is independent of the fact that the photon go  
through hole one or two.





Maybe Deutsch thinks of it as splitting into two worlds and then  
recombining at the detector screen.


He would say that there is never splitting, but your brain has a long  
history, and it has favorized the position base, and that can be  
justified by the decoherence theory.





Once the detection has occurred, a spot on the screen, then the  
split has been amplified and entangled into the environment and is  
statistically irreversible.  Then that defines a classical world (in  
my view).  That world will not recombine with a world in which the  
spot appears at a different place on the screen.


OK. We can define world by set of events closed for interaction.




Have you read Zeh's quantum darwinism?  He attempts to explain why  
we perceive a world whose stable observable features are the ones we  
see.  Deutsch has generally just assumed that the observable world  
must have the classical character we see.  Everett and Bohr assumed  
what variable was classically measurable was defined by the choice  
of apparatus; but that seems circular.


I agree much with Zeh, notably on its account of time. I have not read  
the more recent publication, but quantum darwinism makes, as  
computationalism, by generalizing Everett move, lead to a sort of  
logical evolution of the physical laws.


I appreciate also Mittelstaedt different books, and Piron. And thanks  
to Selesnick, my interest in Finkelstein has been revived.


But computatioanalism+computer science approache this from the other  
side, with a different conception of realitry (more platonist than  
aristotelian).


Bruno



Brent

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Re: MGA revisited paper + supervenience

2014-10-29 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 28 Oct 2014, at 18:35, John Clark wrote:


On Tue, Oct 28, 2014 at 3:00 AM, LizR lizj...@gmail.com wrote:

 The entire point of Bruno's proof and all of his bizarre thought  
experiments is to examine and get rid of that semantic quibble,  
and yet from page 1 Bruno acts as if the concept of personal  
identity was already crystal clear even though in his thought  
experiments such things were stretched about as far as they could  
go. In such circumstances using person pronouns with abandon as  
Bruno does without giving them a second thought is just ridiculous.


 If you say so. Maybe this is due to English not being his first  
language.


No and I am not a member of the grammar police because I often don't  
well speak English myself, I'm talking about a fundamental error in  
Bruno's thinking process covered up by the very sloppy use of  
personal pronouns. In everyday life it's not important to be super  
careful with pronouns and it's possible to be careless with them  
without causing ambiguities, but if matter duplicating machines are  
introduced into the mix extraordinary care must be used and Bruno  
didn't do so.


Where?
But I know your answer by heart, and it consists in repeating what I  
say, but avoiding the 1p and 3p, and 3-1p, etc. distinctions that I  
introduce.


You did not show an error. You attribute me fuzzy things, but your  
can't refer where I said them, except by quoting half sentences out of  
their context.








 However it may be worth looking past how he says it to what he's  
trying to say.


I can't because what he's saying is tightly bound up in the meanings  
of those personal pronouns and in a world with matter duplicating  
machines the meaning of those personal pronouns is ambiguous.


In UDA I use the common sense notion of first person and third person,  
specialized in the term of duplication boxes.
In AUDA, (the arithmetical translation of the UDA) I use Kleene's  
second recursion theorem, or the

Dx = F(xx, ...) method.






 I seem to remember that HE (Hugh Everett :-) talks about the  
nature of the observer in his paper


Yes, and when Everett talks about the observer there is never any  
ambiguity because the laws of physics allow us to see only one thing  
that fits that description, but that is NOT the case if you have  
matter duplicating machines as in Bruno's thought exparament.


If that was relevant, add in the protocol in step three that the one  
reconstituted in Moscow is send to the goulag, and the one  
reconstituted in Washington is sent to jail, and that they will never  
meet, nor have any visit. In that case, with your reasoning above, you  
would accept the uncertainty, but as this is not relevant for the  
immediate apprehension, as we could relieve you from the goulag and  
the jail, after all. So you fail to explain us what is the difference.







 If you look at Bruno's thought experiment it does in fact depend  
on the past. His talk about prediction is to do with how things will  
appear to have happened after they've happened


And that's yet another problem that I didn't mention in my last  
post, not that predictions have the slightest thing to do with  
personal identity but Bruno says that the Helsinki man's prediction  
that John Clark will see Washington AND Moscow has been proven wrong  
because afterwards the Washington Man said I see only Washington.  
But what makes Bruno think that the information received by the  
Washington Man alone (or the Moscow man alone) is enough to evaluate  
the truth or falsehood of the Helsinki Man's prediction?


Because we have agreed that you John Clark survived in both place, and  
so we take notice of both observation. When they said both W  M,  
they both agree that this failed, and understand (I hope) that if they  
would have written W v M, but not sure which one, they would have  
both note that the prediction is correct.

Children understand that.

You just stop doing the thought experience, like if you died in the  
process. You did agree that you don't die, you did agree that you will  
not feel in a superposition of feeling to see both city at once, so,  
in the thought experience, you can only expect one of the outcome W,  
or M, never both, or you are no more talking about what you expect in  
the first person sense.





I've asked Bruno this question nineteen dozen times but never  
received a coherent answer.


You did, but keep restating it introducing your ambiguities, avoiding  
the 1p/3p distinction.






  you do have to be more careful, because you are only incidentally  
linked to one copy in Bruno's thought experiment,


NO! You're linked to BOTH copies with equal strength, and that's  
exactly the problem


Comp avoids that problem. There is no problem at all. It is enough to  
read the notes in the diaries, as we don't talk of any more than that,  
at that step of the reasoning.




and is why when Bruno starts saying that after the duplication you  

Re: The Span of Infinity

2014-10-29 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 28 Oct 2014, at 22:48, LizR wrote:


Well that WAS the point of my original post...

: D

On 29 October 2014 00:55, Peter Sas peterjacco...@gmail.com wrote:
Maybe 'spam of infinity' is a better term ;)



'Spam of infinity', or 'Span of Infinities!' You remember surely, Liz,  
that Cantor proved (in some theory) that there are many infinities,  
even many sort of infinities. With the plural, span might make sense.


Sorry for quibbling on your infinite joke, but I just answered a post  
by John Clark, and it seems I need to quibble a little bit myself :)


Bruno







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Re: The Span of Infinity

2014-10-29 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 27 Oct 2014, at 23:18, LizR wrote:


On 28 October 2014 10:56, Richard Ruquist yann...@gmail.com wrote:
But the span of infinity is outside spacetime.
I would say it's an abstract property of certain mathematical  
systems (or something similar). If GR is right and spacetime is a  
continuum, then it will contain infinities even in a finite region,  
which would mean that it's a mathematical abstraction that happens  
to be realised in the physical universe. But I don't think anyone  
knows if that is true at present, and I believe most theories of  
quantum gravity attempt to make spacetime into something other than  
a continuum.


It looks like the natural idea. To quantize gravitation, we need to  
quantize space-time. But is not string theory still using the  
continuum in the background? Richard? Does not some experiment refute  
some granularity prediction of the loop-theory (which tries to make  
space time a non continuum)?


Bruno






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Re: MGA revisited paper + supervenience

2014-10-29 Thread LizR
On 30 October 2014 05:50, John Clark johnkcl...@gmail.com wrote:

 On Tue, Oct 28, 2014 at 8:26 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  If recombine just means exhibiting interference then I'd say it's just
 a semantic quibble.  When a photon goes thru both of Young's slits and
 interferes with itself I'd say that happens in one world.


 The universe splits because there is a difference between them,  the
 photon (or electron) goes through the left slit in one universe and the
 right slit in another universe.  If after that the photons hit a
 photographic plate (or just a brick wall) both photons are destroyed and
 there is no longer any difference between the 2 universes so they
 recombine, but if we examine history we will see evidence that the photon
 went through the left slit only and evidence that it went through the right
 slit only and this causes interference bands. If we hadn't put a
 photographic plate (or a brick wall) in the photon's path and just let them
 continue into infinite space the 2 universes would always be different and
 so never recombine. For statistical reasons we only see interference if the
 2 universes are almost identical; although it's logically possible that the
 universe where Lincoln was not assassinated and our universe could both
 evolve into a state that was identical and so recombine and cause
 interference it's astronomically unlikely. Actually astronomically is far
 too weak a word but infinitely is too strong, this my be the very rare
 occurrence where a new word might be useful.

 Nicely summarised. In other words any such phenomenon is a split -
including the operation of a quantum computer - and some splits can
recombine (especially if we arrange things so they do).

I didn't think a superposition made sense in Everett because it implies
both objects exist in the same (sub)universe.

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Re: The Span of Infinity

2014-10-29 Thread Richard Ruquist
Yes to both questions. String theory treats spacetime as a continuum and
the loop quantum gravity LQG theories in which spacetime is granular
predict that photons at differing frequencies propagate at differing
velocities, which has apparently been falsified by Fermi Telescope data
that indicates that gamma rays about an order of magnitude of differing
frequency or energy arrive at the telescope at the same time within
measurement accuracy. I can get the reference for you if interested. Thanks
for thinking of me.
In my career I have encountered many researchers who seem to remember
everything of importance. Not me and that has really been a handicap. Now
at 77 even my short-term memory is failing me. I seem to be heading for
dementia but a quick trip to the afterlife would be preferable.
Richard

On Wed, Oct 29, 2014 at 2:20 PM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:


 On 27 Oct 2014, at 23:18, LizR wrote:

 On 28 October 2014 10:56, Richard Ruquist yann...@gmail.com wrote:

 But the span of infinity is outside spacetime.

 I would say it's an abstract property of certain mathematical systems (or
 something similar). If GR is right and spacetime is a continuum, then it
 will contain infinities even in a finite region, which would mean that it's
 a mathematical abstraction that happens to be realised in the physical
 universe. But I don't think anyone knows if that is true at present, and I
 believe most theories of quantum gravity attempt to make spacetime into
 something other than a continuum.


 It looks like the natural idea. To quantize gravitation, we need to
 quantize space-time. But is not string theory still using the continuum in
 the background? Richard? Does not some experiment refute some granularity
 prediction of the loop-theory (which tries to make space time a non
 continuum)?

 Bruno





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Re: The Span of Infinity

2014-10-29 Thread LizR
On 30 October 2014 09:14, Richard Ruquist yann...@gmail.com wrote:

 Yes to both questions. String theory treats spacetime as a continuum and
 the loop quantum gravity LQG theories in which spacetime is granular
 predict that photons at differing frequencies propagate at differing
 velocities, which has apparently been falsified by Fermi Telescope data
 that indicates that gamma rays about an order of magnitude of differing
 frequency or energy arrive at the telescope at the same time within
 measurement accuracy. I can get the reference for you if interested. Thanks
 for thinking of me.
 In my career I have encountered many researchers who seem to remember
 everything of importance. Not me and that has really been a handicap. Now
 at 77 even my short-term memory is failing me. I seem to be heading for
 dementia but a quick trip to the afterlife would be preferable.

 Apparently eating lots of chocolate can help stave off dementia and even
senior moments. That and a bottle of red wine a day.

(And hell, even if they can't)

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Re: The Span of Infinity

2014-10-29 Thread Richard Ruquist
Been there. Done that. Dementia comes from sleep deprivation due to ... too
many details.

On Wed, Oct 29, 2014 at 4:53 PM, LizR lizj...@gmail.com wrote:

 On 30 October 2014 09:14, Richard Ruquist yann...@gmail.com wrote:

 Yes to both questions. String theory treats spacetime as a continuum and
 the loop quantum gravity LQG theories in which spacetime is granular
 predict that photons at differing frequencies propagate at differing
 velocities, which has apparently been falsified by Fermi Telescope data
 that indicates that gamma rays about an order of magnitude of differing
 frequency or energy arrive at the telescope at the same time within
 measurement accuracy. I can get the reference for you if interested. Thanks
 for thinking of me.
 In my career I have encountered many researchers who seem to remember
 everything of importance. Not me and that has really been a handicap. Now
 at 77 even my short-term memory is failing me. I seem to be heading for
 dementia but a quick trip to the afterlife would be preferable.

 Apparently eating lots of chocolate can help stave off dementia and even
 senior moments. That and a bottle of red wine a day.

 (And hell, even if they can't)

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Re: MGA revisited paper + supervenience

2014-10-29 Thread meekerdb

On 10/29/2014 9:50 AM, John Clark wrote:
On Tue, Oct 28, 2014 at 8:26 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net 
mailto:meeke...@verizon.net wrote:


 If recombine just means exhibiting interference then I'd say it's just a
semantic quibble.  When a photon goes thru both of Young's slits and 
interferes with
itself I'd say that happens in one world.


The universe splits because there is a difference between them,  the photon (or 
electron) goes through the left slit in one universe and the right slit in another 
universe.  If after that the photons


There's only one photon.

hit a photographic plate (or just a brick wall) both photons are destroyed and there is 
no longer any difference between the 2 universes so they recombine,


But there is a difference in the path lengths from the source to detector, which produces 
the probability pattern for detection. This pattern is one world.  If the path lengths 
were different in different worlds there would be no interference of phases, which is just 
what happens when you shoot classical particles thru the slits.


but if we examine history we will see evidence that the photon went through the left 
slit only and evidence that it went through the right slit only and this causes 
interference bands.


?? What kind of evidence do you refer to.  Delayed quantum eraser experiments show that if 
there is such evidence, if it's not erased, the interference disappears.


If we hadn't put a photographic plate (or a brick wall) in the photon's path and just 
let them continue into infinite space the 2 universes would always be different and so 
never recombine.


It depends on whether they interact with the environment.  In the C70 buckyball 
experiment, photons that were never detected still localized the buckyballs and destroyed 
the interference pattern.  On the other hand in the Dopfer experiment the idler photon was 
focused on the detector so that lateral momentum information was erased and the 
interference pattern was observed.


Brent

For statistical reasons we only see interference if the 2 universes are almost 
identical; although it's logically possible that the universe where Lincoln was not 
assassinated and our universe could both evolve into a state that was identical and so 
recombine and cause interference it's astronomically unlikely. Actually astronomically 
is far too weak a word but infinitely is too strong, this my be the very rare occurrence 
where a new word might be useful.


  John K Clark



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Re: MGA revisited paper + supervenience

2014-10-29 Thread meekerdb

On 10/29/2014 10:00 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 29 Oct 2014, at 00:15, meekerdb wrote:


On 10/28/2014 8:14 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 27 Oct 2014, at 20:58, meekerdb wrote:


On 10/27/2014 3:38 AM, LizR wrote:
It would be nice if Mr Clark would EITHER stop joining in with discussions just to 
say that he doesn't care about comp, OR state what he agrees or disagrees with in 
Bruno's stated argument.


Just saying it's obviously wrong doesn't really cut it. So far the only real 
(non-sarcastic, non-insult-based) objection I've heard comes down to a semantic 
quibble to do with redefining our concept of an individual person. This is exactly 
the same redefinition that was brought up by Everett in 1957. It isn't in itself 
contentious - a physicist who believes the MWI to be correct will come to the same 
conclusions about indeterminacy that someone using Bruno's matter transmitter would 
- that it's a phenomenon experienced from a first person perspective because of the 
person in question being split into two copies. The phenomena actually map onto each 
other, because both comp and Everett allow for the possibility that from the third 
person viewpoint the duplication could be observed - quantum computers rely on 
precisely that fact.


Quantum computers (of the circuit type) rely on interference to pick out the right 
solution. Interference implies superposition in the same world.


Only if you isolate the subsystem well enough. Imagine that I can isolate my room, 
where I am, sufficiently, and in that room I succeed in isolating schroedinger cat 
(prepared in the alive + dead state) in a box. Then, in my isolated room I look at the 
cat (measuring in the alive/dead base) .QM description is that when I do that 
measurement, I put myself in the superposition alive + dead. It follows from the 
linearity of evolution and of the tensor product. You might say that I am in that 
superposed state in *one* world. But if my room is not sufficiently well isolated, or 
more normally when I go out of that room, announcing with some joy that the cat is 
alive, well soon enough, the environment (the building with that room, then city, and 
you coming for a visit) get in the superposition history of the earth with that 
Shroedinger car alive + history of the earth with that Shroedinger car dead.
Would you still say that it is a superposition in *one* world. Yes, the 
differentiation of the galaxies will follows, at the speed of light, and I guess there 
will be two Milky ways colliding with Andromeda, one with archive describing the fact 
that that Schroedinger cat was alive, and one with the fact that that Schroedinger cat 
is dead. Would you still say that there is one world? I like to define a physical 
world (in the quantum theory) by a set of objects/events close for interaction. That 
makes the many world the literal interpretation of QM. Without collapse, I don't see 
how the term of the superposition can ever disappear.


The superposition doesn't disappear but it becomes dispersed into the environmental 
degrees of freedom, so FAPP there are separate classical worlds.  My point is that 
superposition is not a defining attribute of different worlds, it's relative 
incoherence so subspaces.


I have no problem with that. And despite Everett's own opinion on this, I think it was a 
good idea to call that the relative state theory, instead of the many worlds, which 
can lead to naïve view of multiple aristotelian worlds, which would be doing the 
aristotelian error an infinity of times.


In arithmetic also, all we have are the relative states, and their relative measures. 
(cf the ASSA/RSSA old discussion, a recurrent theme on the list).










I highly recommend Scott Aaronson's blog http://www.scottaaronson.com/blog/ , for 
straight talk about quantum computing (his book Quantum Computing Since Democritus 
is also very good).


What is his position on Everett?


/(2) One of the first questions anyone asks on learning quantum mechanics is, “OK, but 
do all these branches of the wavefunction really exist? or are they just mathematical 
constructs used to calculate probabilities?” Roughly speaking, Many-Worlders would say 
they do exist, while Copenhagenists would say they don’t. /



Many worlders, when wise avoid the questions, they do exist in the formalism, so if the 
tehiry is correct, they can't just simply disappear.


But it is false or ambiguous to say that the /Copenhagenists/ would say they don't 
believe that they exist. They believe indeed that one of them exist!  That is why they 
need a mechanism to make disappearing some term in the wave, and they invented the 
collapse, which is simply a way to say that they believe that QM does not apply to  
them, or the measuring apparatus, or consciousness, etc. They did not find any evidence 
that there is a collapse, nor any senseful criteria for something not obeying QM..






/Of course, part of what makes the question slippery is that it’s 

Re: MGA revisited paper + supervenience

2014-10-29 Thread meekerdb

On 10/29/2014 10:21 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 29 Oct 2014, at 01:12, meekerdb wrote:


On 10/28/2014 4:12 PM, LizR wrote:
On 28 October 2014 22:52, Richard Ruquist yann...@gmail.com 
mailto:yann...@gmail.com wrote:


Liz,

I define consciousness as my ability to make choices.


That is an unusual definition, and not one I think most people would agree with, 
although they'd probably agree it's /involved/ in consciousness. But yes, using that 
definition the MWI makes consciousness an illusion.


(Most people call the ability to make choices free will. That is an illusion under the 
MWI, and indeed most theories of physics.)


Bruno responds with the Gaussian  (somewhat like measure theory)
which suggests that some worlds are less important than this one.


I don't know about Bruno but David Deutsch appears to think that some decisions will 
have a much higher measure in the multiverse than others. So, say, 99.99% of me (so to 
speak) will have coffee and only 0.01% will decide on a whim to have a milkshake. (And 
0.1% will think so hard about it that they spontaneously combust.)


That raises the question of how the multiple-worlds split. Does the 0.01% imply that 
the world must split into 1e5 copies, in one of which you have a milkshape?  Or does it 
require that it must split 1e15 ways so that you can spontaneously combust in one.  I 
think Bruno's UD tries to take care of this by have infinitely many threads thru the 
occasion of your whim.  But this is different compared to the 
Helsinki/Moscow/Washington thought experiment.  In that case the Moscow and Washington 
guys are created.  But in the UD's infinite threads the infinite threads all exist 
timelessly.


In the DeWitt-Wheeler equation, time disappears too. In the WM-duplication, guys are 
created relatively to you, and *that* happens infinitely often in the UD-computations. 
Like Einstein said, time is an illusion, although a persistent one.


Neither Everett, nor Deutsch, nor computationalism solved all problem, we just get the 
tools to formulate them.


Wise many-worlders will not pretend that no collapse explains all weirdness. They just 
feel like the collapse itself is just too much weird than to be accepted. Here too I am 
close to Einstein view: I don't see what it could mean to abandon 3p- determinacy and 
3p-locality in the physical realm


I think we know exactly what it means - it means Copenhagen: randomness and non-locality 
in spacetime.  My problem with Copenhagen is that it made measurement an abstract 
mathematical operation with no physics - which seems like a bad basis for fundamental 
physics.  Decoherence has allowed the Copenhagen interpretation to go part way in defining 
measurement, but it is still not complete.  Taking partial traces is just like the 
projection postulate.  Zurek's quantum Darwinism looks promising and it may reach all the 
way to the mind/body problem.


Brent

: God does not play dice, and there are no action at a distance, although it might look 
like that, but only if we abstract away some terms or the superposition. In quantum 
teleportation, Alice has to send some bit of classical information to tell him which 
part of the multiple terms wave they share.


Bruno
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Re: The Span of Infinity

2014-10-29 Thread meekerdb

On 10/29/2014 11:20 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 27 Oct 2014, at 23:18, LizR wrote:

On 28 October 2014 10:56, Richard Ruquist yann...@gmail.com 
mailto:yann...@gmail.com wrote:


But the span of infinity is outside spacetime.

I would say it's an abstract property of certain mathematical systems (or something 
similar). If GR is right and spacetime is a continuum, then it will contain infinities 
even in a finite region, which would mean that it's a mathematical abstraction that 
happens to be realised in the physical universe. But I don't think anyone knows if that 
is true at present, and I believe most theories of quantum gravity attempt to make 
spacetime into something other than a continuum.


It looks like the natural idea. To quantize gravitation, we need to quantize space-time. 
But is not string theory still using the continuum in the background? Richard? Does not 
some experiment refute some granularity prediction of the loop-theory (which tries to 
make space time a non continuum)?


The observation that gamma rays from a very distant gamma ray burster arrived at the same 
time, independent of their energy, showed that the discreteness of space must be at a 
level two orders of magnitude smaller than the Planck length - which had been thought to 
be scale of discreteness.


Brent

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Re: The Span of Infinity

2014-10-29 Thread zibbsey


On Wednesday, October 29, 2014 6:17:12 PM UTC, Bruno Marchal wrote:


 On 28 Oct 2014, at 22:48, LizR wrote:

 Well that WAS the point of my original post...

 : D

 On 29 October 2014 00:55, Peter Sas peterj...@gmail.com javascript: 
 wrote:

 Maybe 'spam of infinity' is a better term ;)



 'Spam of infinity', or 'Span of Infinities!' You remember surely, Liz, 
 that Cantor proved (in some theory) that there are many infinities, even 
 many sort of infinities. With the plural, span might make sense.

 Sorry for quibbling on your infinite joke, but I just answered a post by 
 John Clark, and it seems I need to quibble a little bit myself :)

 Bruce



I would say you're more a obfscator than a quibbler . 

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Re: The Span of Infinity

2014-10-29 Thread zibbsey


On Wednesday, October 29, 2014 11:03:01 PM UTC, zib...@gmail.com wrote:



 On Wednesday, October 29, 2014 6:17:12 PM UTC, Bruno Marchal wrote:


 On 28 Oct 2014, at 22:48, LizR wrote:

 Well that WAS the point of my original post...

 : D

 On 29 October 2014 00:55, Peter Sas peterj...@gmail.com wrote:

 Maybe 'spam of infinity' is a better term ;)



 'Spam of infinity', or 'Span of Infinities!' You remember surely, Liz, 
 that Cantor proved (in some theory) that there are many infinities, even 
 many sort of infinities. With the plural, span might make sense.

 Sorry for quibbling on your infinite joke, but I just answered a post by 
 John Clark, and it seems I need to quibble a little bit myself :)

 Bruce



 I would say you're more a obfscator than a quibbler . 


 sorry wasn't meant to send the post right then...the above comment 
actually represent what is usually the beginning of humour around these 
words. And I was actually going use that as a way to explain why you're not 
quibbling today. 

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Re: The Span of Infinity

2014-10-29 Thread LizR
you can delete your posts (I think?)

On 30 October 2014 12:07, zibb...@gmail.com wrote:



 On Wednesday, October 29, 2014 11:03:01 PM UTC, zib...@gmail.com wrote:



 On Wednesday, October 29, 2014 6:17:12 PM UTC, Bruno Marchal wrote:


 On 28 Oct 2014, at 22:48, LizR wrote:

 Well that WAS the point of my original post...

 : D

 On 29 October 2014 00:55, Peter Sas peterj...@gmail.com wrote:

 Maybe 'spam of infinity' is a better term ;)



 'Spam of infinity', or 'Span of Infinities!' You remember surely, Liz,
 that Cantor proved (in some theory) that there are many infinities, even
 many sort of infinities. With the plural, span might make sense.

 Sorry for quibbling on your infinite joke, but I just answered a post by
 John Clark, and it seems I need to quibble a little bit myself :)

 Bruce



 I would say you're more a obfscator than a quibbler .


  sorry wasn't meant to send the post right then...the above comment
 actually represent what is usually the beginning of humour around these
 words. And I was actually going use that as a way to explain why you're not
 quibbling today.

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Re: MGA revisited paper + supervenience

2014-10-29 Thread John Clark
On Wed, Oct 29, 2014 at 5:17 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

 The universe splits because there is a difference between them,  the
 photon (or electron) goes through the left slit in one universe and the
 right slit in another universe.  If after that the photons



  There's only one photon.


Not if Everett is correct, if he is then when a photon encounters
something, like a wall with 2 slits in it, everything that can happen does
happen. And for that to occur you need more than one photon and more than
one universe.


  If the path lengths were different in different worlds there would be no
 interference


If anything is still different when the photon hits the photographic plate
there will be no interference. You only see interference if there is a
change, a difference, so one universe splits into two and then another
change that makes them identical again. Unless the first change is very
very small it's almost impossible there will ever be a second change large
enough for the 2 universes to become identical again.


   but if we examine history we will see evidence that the photon went
 through the left slit only and evidence that it went through the right slit
 only and this causes interference bands.


  ?? What kind of evidence do you refer to.


A interference pattern.

 Delayed quantum eraser experiments show that if there is such evidence,
 if it's not erased, the interference disappears


That is correct. If the information about which slits the photons went
through exists then the 2 universe are still different when the photons hit
the plate because the information must be recorded in something physical
and whatever the physical medium is the arrangement of something physical
will be different, so the 2 universes are not identical and thus do not
recombine and no interference pattern forms on the photographic and there
is no indication that any photon went through more than one slit.

However if the information about which slits the photons went through is
erased after they pass the slits but before they hit the photographic plate
then there is no longer any difference between the 2 universes, even though
there once was, so they recombine and and interfere. There isn't a lot of
interference because they were never more than slightly different but there
is some and we see it as interference bands on that photographic plate and
indications that the photons went through both slits.

  John K Clark







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Re: MGA revisited paper + supervenience

2014-10-29 Thread meekerdb

On 10/29/2014 6:54 PM, John Clark wrote:
On Wed, Oct 29, 2014 at 5:17 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net 
mailto:meeke...@verizon.net wrote:


 The universe splits because there is a difference between them,  the 
photon (or
electron) goes through the left slit in one universe and the right slit in 
another
universe. If after that the photons

  There's only one photon.


Not if Everett is correct, if he is then when a photon encounters something, like a wall 
with 2 slits in it, everything that can happen does happen. And for that to occur you 
need more than one photon and more than one universe.


 If the path lengths were different in different worlds there would be no 
interference


If anything is still different when the photon hits the photographic plate there will be 
no interference. You only see interference if there is a change, a difference, so one 
universe splits into two and then another change that makes them identical again. Unless 
the first change is very very small it's almost impossible there will ever be a second 
change large enough for the 2 universes to become identical again.


  but if we examine history we will see evidence that the photon went 
through
the left slit only and evidence that it went through the right slit 
only and
this causes interference bands. 



 ?? What kind of evidence do you refer to.


A interference pattern.


That's hardly evidence the photon went thru one slit only.



 Delayed quantum eraser experiments show that if there is such evidence, 
if it's
not erased, the interference disappears


That is correct. If the information about which slits the photons went through exists 
then the 2 universe are still different when the photons hit the plate because the 
information must be recorded in something physical and whatever the physical medium is 
the arrangement of something physical will be different, so the 2 universes are not 
identical and thus do not recombine and no interference pattern forms on the 
photographic and there is no indication that any photon went through more than one slit.


However if the information about which slits the photons went through is erased after 
they pass the slits but before they hit the photographic plate


No, it's called the /*delayed*/ quantum eraser experiment because the which-way 
information can be erased /*after*/ they hit the detector


arXiv:quant-ph/9903047 v1 13 Mar 1999

Brent


then there is no longer any difference between the 2 universes, even though there once 
was, so they recombine and and interfere. There isn't a lot of interference because they 
were never more than slightly different but there is some and we see it as interference 
bands on that photographic plate and indications that the photons went through both slits.


  John K Clark






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Re: Do all forces derive from repulsionattraction?

2014-10-29 Thread John Clark
On Tue, Oct 28, 2014  Peter Sas peterjacco...@gmail.com wrote:

 Kant constructs the concept of matter using only the concepts of
 attractive and repulsive forces


A magnetic field neither attracts nor repels an electron, instead it
applied a force that is always at right angles to the electron's direction
of motion. Oh well, at lest Kant came up with a theory that had the
capacity to be proven wrong, which is more than I can say about most
philosophers.

  John K Clark








Recently I read Kant's Metaphysical Foundations of Natural Science (1786)
 where he tries to base the basic concepts of physics on the transcendental
 categories and principles laid down in his Critique of Pure Reason. One of
 the most interesting parts, I found, was the second chapter on 'dynamics'
 where Kant constructs the concept of matter using only the concepts of
 attractive and repulsive forces (presupposing space and time as the forms
 of sensory perception). Basically, the impenetrability of matter is
 explained by a repulsive force inherent in matter, which needs to be
 complemented by an attractive force, since otherwise matter would scatter
 infinitely throughout space.

 Now what caught my attention was Kant's claim that all forces (in modern
 terms: interactions) of nature must ultimately be understood as forms of
 attraction and repulsion. His argument is very simple: in space, when one
 object exerts a force on another, this can ony result either in the objects
 moving away from each other (so that the force must be repulsive) or in the
 objects moving towards each other (so that the force must be attractive).

 Here is what he writes:

 These [repulsion and attraction] are the only two moving forces that can
 be thought. In the context of questions about one portion of matter
 impressing some motion on another, the two portions must be regarded as
 points; so any transaction of that kind must be regarded as happening
 between two points on a single straight line. Now, there are only two ways
 for two points to move relative to one another on a single straight line:
 either they approach one another, caused to do so by an attractive force;
 or they recede from one another, caused to do so by a repelling force.
 Consequently, these two kinds of forces are the only ones we can make sense
 of; and all the forces of motion in material Nature must come down to
 them. (Chapter 2, Explanation 2 to Proposition 1)

 I thought this was a real eye opener. Nowadays, of course, we know much
 more about the basic interactions than in Kant's time. So I started
 wondering: First, is it true that all the basic interactions are forms of
 attraction and/or repulsion? And if so, then could it perhaps be possible
 that all the interactions can ultimately be unified in one most elementary
 form of attraction and repulsion? Isn't is the case that when we get closer
 to the singularity the interactions become one? But what then are they
 unified into?

 Gravity is clear attractive, though I gather that in inflation gravity can
 also be repulsive.
 In electromagnetism repulsion and attraction too play an important role,
 though I am not sure if this also holds for the weak nuclear force to which
 the electromagnetic force appears to be related.
 In the strong nuclear force attraction too plays a crucial role.

 So how do you think about Kant's suggestion in the light of present day
 physics? Is there a chance that all the fundamental interactions are
 different manifestations of one single polarity of attraction and
 repulsion?




 In short: matter is defined as filling space and as impenetrable for other
 pieces of matter. According to Kant, this concept of matter can be fully
 contstructed


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Re: MGA revisited paper + supervenience

2014-10-29 Thread John Clark
On Wed, Oct 29, 2014 at 10:11 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:


?? What kind of evidence do you refer to.


   A interference pattern.

  That's hardly evidence the photon went thru one slit only.


Of course not it's would be the exact opposite,  it's evidence the photon
went through both slits.


  if the information about which slits the photons went through is erased
 after they pass the slits but before they hit the photographic plate


  No, it's called the *delayed* quantum eraser experiment because the
 which-way information can be erased *after* they hit the detector


Fine, you record the information about which slit the photons went through
then wait ten years, then erase the information. Provided that the recorded
information has not interacted with anything in the preceding 10 year, such
as you looking at it, then when it is erased there is no longer any
difference between the 2 universes and thus they recombine. And so if you
then develop the photographic plate a interference pattern will be observed
on it.

If you didn't erase the information they wouldn't recombine and thus no
interference pattern would be found when you developed it.

  John K Clark.







 arXiv:quant-ph/9903047 v1 13 Mar 1999

 Brent


   then there is no longer any difference between the 2 universes, even
 though there once was, so they recombine and and interfere. There isn't a
 lot of interference because they were never more than slightly different
 but there is some and we see it as interference bands on that photographic
 plate and indications that the photons went through both slits.

John K Clark






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