Re: Re: Is there an aether ?

2013-01-30 Thread Roger Clough
Hi Bruno Marchal 

Theology is an objective, derivative. human pursuit based on reason,
and reason, acccording to my Lutheran beliefs,
being objective (3p), cannot be free of error. Only faith (1p),
being doubly subjective (guided by the HS), cannot be free of error.
Obviously I cannot prove that. 


- Receiving the following content - 
From: Bruno Marchal 
Receiver: everything-list 
Time: 2013-01-27, 06:56:38
Subject: Re: Is there an aether ?


Hi Roger,


On 25 Jan 2013, at 15:42, Roger Clough wrote:


Hi Bruno Marchal 

Separated, yes. But accesible to all IMHO.


But then why separate them? Why not allowing seriousness in theology. To ease 
our fear of death? That's the local goal, and it makes sense locally, but it 
leads to more problems, especially if everyone can access it: no need of 
authoritative argument. The bible is a venerable human text, but like all 
prose, it does not need literal interpretation, or we get insane, and let fight 
between big-enders and small-enders (cf Voltaire).


Bruno






- Receiving the following content - 
From: Bruno Marchal 
Receiver: everything-list 
Time: 2013-01-24, 15:07:59
Subject: Re: Is there an aether ?




On 24 Jan 2013, at 09:48, Roger Clough wrote:


Hi Bruno Marchal and all--

Rather than living in such a dreary scientific world,
yhe point is to escape from the world of science
into the world of Mind.


Those worlds are not necessarily separated.


Bruno








- Receiving the following content - 
From: Bruno Marchal 
Receiver: everything-list 
Time: 2013-01-23, 11:07:09
Subject: Re: Is there an aether ?




On 22 Jan 2013, at 22:52, John Mikes wrote:


Richard: 
and what is  -  NOT  - an illusion? are you? or me? 
we have no way to ascertain existence and qualia, we just THINK. 
Our science is based on SOME info we don't know exactly, not even if it is like 
we think it is. We calculate in our human logic (stupidity would be more 
accurate) and then comes a newer enlightenment and we change it all. Brent 
wrote a nice list of such changes lately. I use the classic Flat Earth. 
But we live happily ever after and before (not knowing if TIME does indeed 
exist?). And some of us get Nobel prizes. Congrats. 


So: happy illusions! 


Science is only that. The courage to be stupid, and the hope that this might 
help to be a little bit less stupid tomorrow.


But being wrong is, in fact, not really like being stupid. The real stupidity 
is what persists. It is staying wrong despite evidences. This happens often 
when people try to measure/judge intelligence and stupidity, especially their 
own, which makes no sense. We can evaluate special competence, but we can't 
evaluate intelligence.


Bruno








John Mikes


On Tue, Jan 22, 2013 at 4:20 PM, Richard Ruquist yann...@gmail.com wrote:

On Tue, Jan 22, 2013 at 3:54 PM, Craig Weinberg whatsons...@gmail.com wrote:


 On Tuesday, January 22, 2013 3:49:09 PM UTC-5, yanniru wrote:

 On Tue, Jan 22, 2013 at 3:38 PM, Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.com
 wrote:
  That doesn't have anything to do with your straw man of my position. I
  have
  never once said that existence is contingent upon human consciousness. I
  state again and again that it is experience itself - the capacity for
  sensory-motor participation which is the progenitor of all possible
  forms of
  'existence'. Something 'being' means that there is an experience,
  otherwise
  there is no possibility of anything ever coming into being.

 However, in a static Block MWI Universe there is no need for time or
 consciousness or experience.


 Then in what sense does it 'exist'?

It must be an illusion. Either that or MWI is an illusion. Doesn't
Bruno say that matter is a dream or illusion? Richard



 That seems to be Bruno's multiverse.
 Although I wonder if his 1p perspective is equivalent to your
 motor-sensory experience in order to make time, consciousness
 necessary?
 Richard

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Re: Re: Is there an aether ?

2013-01-25 Thread Roger Clough
Hi Bruno Marchal 

Separated, yes. But accesible to all IMHO.


- Receiving the following content - 
From: Bruno Marchal 
Receiver: everything-list 
Time: 2013-01-24, 15:07:59
Subject: Re: Is there an aether ?




On 24 Jan 2013, at 09:48, Roger Clough wrote:


Hi Bruno Marchal and all--

Rather than living in such a dreary scientific world,
yhe point is to escape from the world of science
into the world of Mind.


Those worlds are not necessarily separated.


Bruno








- Receiving the following content - 
From: Bruno Marchal 
Receiver: everything-list 
Time: 2013-01-23, 11:07:09
Subject: Re: Is there an aether ?




On 22 Jan 2013, at 22:52, John Mikes wrote:


Richard: 
and what is  -  NOT  - an illusion? are you? or me? 
we have no way to ascertain existence and qualia, we just THINK. 
Our science is based on SOME info we don't know exactly, not even if it is like 
we think it is. We calculate in our human logic (stupidity would be more 
accurate) and then comes a newer enlightenment and we change it all. Brent 
wrote a nice list of such changes lately. I use the classic Flat Earth. 
But we live happily ever after and before (not knowing if TIME does indeed 
exist?). And some of us get Nobel prizes. Congrats. 


So: happy illusions! 


Science is only that. The courage to be stupid, and the hope that this might 
help to be a little bit less stupid tomorrow.


But being wrong is, in fact, not really like being stupid. The real stupidity 
is what persists. It is staying wrong despite evidences. This happens often 
when people try to measure/judge intelligence and stupidity, especially their 
own, which makes no sense. We can evaluate special competence, but we can't 
evaluate intelligence.


Bruno








John Mikes


On Tue, Jan 22, 2013 at 4:20 PM, Richard Ruquist yann...@gmail.com wrote:

On Tue, Jan 22, 2013 at 3:54 PM, Craig Weinberg whatsons...@gmail.com wrote:


 On Tuesday, January 22, 2013 3:49:09 PM UTC-5, yanniru wrote:

 On Tue, Jan 22, 2013 at 3:38 PM, Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.com
 wrote:
  That doesn't have anything to do with your straw man of my position. I
  have
  never once said that existence is contingent upon human consciousness. I
  state again and again that it is experience itself - the capacity for
  sensory-motor participation which is the progenitor of all possible
  forms of
  'existence'. Something 'being' means that there is an experience,
  otherwise
  there is no possibility of anything ever coming into being.

 However, in a static Block MWI Universe there is no need for time or
 consciousness or experience.


 Then in what sense does it 'exist'?

It must be an illusion. Either that or MWI is an illusion. Doesn't
Bruno say that matter is a dream or illusion? Richard



 That seems to be Bruno's multiverse.
 Although I wonder if his 1p perspective is equivalent to your
 motor-sensory experience in order to make time, consciousness
 necessary?
 Richard

 --
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http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/








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Re: Re: Is there an aether ?

2013-01-24 Thread Roger Clough
Hi Bruno Marchal and all--

Rather than living in such a dreary scientific world,
yhe point is to escape from the world of science
into the world of Mind.


- Receiving the following content - 
From: Bruno Marchal 
Receiver: everything-list 
Time: 2013-01-23, 11:07:09
Subject: Re: Is there an aether ?




On 22 Jan 2013, at 22:52, John Mikes wrote:


Richard:
and what is  -  NOT  - an illusion? are you? or me? 
we have no way to ascertain existence and qualia, we just THINK. 
Our science is based on SOME info we don't know exactly, not even if it is like 
we think it is. We calculate in our human logic (stupidity would be more 
accurate) and then comes a newer enlightenment and we change it all. Brent 
wrote a nice list of such changes lately. I use the classic Flat Earth. 
But we live happily ever after and before (not knowing if TIME does indeed 
exist?). And some of us get Nobel prizes. Congrats. 


So: happy illusions! 


Science is only that. The courage to be stupid, and the hope that this might 
help to be a little bit less stupid tomorrow.


But being wrong is, in fact, not really like being stupid. The real stupidity 
is what persists. It is staying wrong despite evidences. This happens often 
when people try to measure/judge intelligence and stupidity, especially their 
own, which makes no sense. We can evaluate special competence, but we can't 
evaluate intelligence.


Bruno








John Mikes


On Tue, Jan 22, 2013 at 4:20 PM, Richard Ruquist yann...@gmail.com wrote:

On Tue, Jan 22, 2013 at 3:54 PM, Craig Weinberg whatsons...@gmail.com wrote:


 On Tuesday, January 22, 2013 3:49:09 PM UTC-5, yanniru wrote:

 On Tue, Jan 22, 2013 at 3:38 PM, Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.com
 wrote:
  That doesn't have anything to do with your straw man of my position. I
  have
  never once said that existence is contingent upon human consciousness. I
  state again and again that it is experience itself - the capacity for
  sensory-motor participation which is the progenitor of all possible
  forms of
  'existence'. Something 'being' means that there is an experience,
  otherwise
  there is no possibility of anything ever coming into being.

 However, in a static Block MWI Universe there is no need for time or
 consciousness or experience.


 Then in what sense does it 'exist'?

It must be an illusion. Either that or MWI is an illusion. Doesn't
Bruno say that matter is a dream or illusion? Richard



 That seems to be Bruno's multiverse.
 Although I wonder if his 1p perspective is equivalent to your
 motor-sensory experience in order to make time, consciousness
 necessary?
 Richard

 --
 You received this message because you are subscribed to the Google Groups
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Re: Re: Is there an aether ?

2013-01-23 Thread Roger Clough
Hi Stephen P. King 

Agreed, the constant other observer needed to
maintain the world when I close my eyes need not be God, 
But it has to be something like God. Omnipresent, for example.
Plato called it the One.

Nothing would work without physical laws, and these cannot be directly 
perceived.
Gravity, for example, cannot be perceived. Force also cannot be perceived, 
only its effects. And time and space cannot be observed. cannot
be directly perceived. And do I fall on the floor when I turn out the lights
at night because it is too dark to see my bed ? The list of counterfactuals
goes on and on.  

So I say that, whatever the cause, Berkeley's theory is just plain silly.
- Receiving the following content - 
From: Stephen P. King 
Receiver: everything-list 
Time: 2013-01-22, 08:39:30
Subject: Re: Is there an aether ?


On 1/22/2013 7:22 AM, Roger Clough wrote:

Hi Craig Weinberg 

If you knew more about the history of philsophy,
you'd know that Berkeley finally had to admit that the world out
there is real prior to our individual observation because
it is all observed by God.


Hi Roger,

This is a good example of the problem that the notion of God has; it server 
only to act as an impartial observer so that everything is real. When we 
consider large numbers of observers that can communicate with each other 
meaningfully, we obtain a means to define 'reality' and have no need for the 
excess hypothesis of God as observer. God's role becomes even less meaningful 
when we see that the point of view of such an entity cannot be transformed into 
that of a real observer that we can communicate with, as it is somehow special. 
We learn from GR and QM that there are neither preferred reference frames or 
observational points of view nor measurement basis. This pretty much makes the 
God hypothesis irrelevant.
Why people would seek to rehabilitate it to play the same role again for 
mathematics puzzles me!


-- 
Onward!

Stephen

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Re: Re: Re: Re: Re: Is there an aether ?

2013-01-23 Thread Roger Clough
Hi Craig Weinberg 


But if plants and animals experience the world at the same time
as humans, wouldn't there be a strange population of objects,
and wouldn't there be the problem of two objects being
in the same space ?


- Receiving the following content - 
From: Craig Weinberg 
Receiver: everything-list 
Time: 2013-01-22, 15:38:50
Subject: Re: Re: Re: Re: Is there an aether ?




On Tuesday, January 22, 2013 7:22:06 AM UTC-5, rclough wrote:
Hi Craig Weinberg 

If you knew more about the history of philsophy,
you'd know that Berkeley finally had to admit that the world out
there is real prior to our individual observation because
it is all observed by God.


That doesn't have anything to do with your straw man of my position. I have 
never once said that existence is contingent upon human consciousness. I state 
again and again that it is experience itself - the capacity for sensory-motor 
participation which is the progenitor of all possible forms of 'existence'. 
Something 'being' means that there is an experience, otherwise there is no 
possibility of anything ever coming into being.



- Receiving the following content - 
From: Craig Weinberg 
Receiver: everything-list 
Time: 2013-01-21, 11:53:45
Subject: Re: Re: Re: Is there an aether ?




On Monday, January 21, 2013 4:53:25 AM UTC-5, rclough wrote: 
Hi Craig Weinberg 

That is such a silly pov. 

Because it's your pov, not mine. You don't understand what I am talking about 
so you keep pointing at a Straw Man misinterpretation of Berkeleyan idealism.
 

If a boulder
fell off of a cliff above you onto you that 
you didn't see, would it hurt you or not ?

It depends if I was in a coma or not. If a boulder fell on you while you were 
in a coma, and you remained in a coma for another year, there would be no 
'hurt' caused by the boulder - at least not to you personally...to your cells 
and organs, that's another matter.
 

- Receiving the following content - 
From: Craig Weinberg 
Receiver: everything-list 
Time: 2013-01-20, 15:47:31
Subject: Re: Re: Is there an aether ?




On Sunday, January 20, 2013 2:40:53 PM UTC-5, rclough wrote: 
Hi Craig Weinberg 

So the world did not exist before man ?

The world existed before man, but not before experience. Man does not define 
all experience in the universe.
 



- Receiving the following content - 
From: Craig Weinberg 
Receiver: everything-list 
Time: 2013-01-20, 11:20:07
Subject: Re: Is there an aether ?




On Sunday, January 20, 2013 8:20:32 AM UTC-5, telmo_menezes wrote: 
Hi Craig, 

On Sun, Jan 20, 2013 at 4:37 AM, Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.com wrote:

The whole worldview is built on the mistaken assumption that it is possible for 
something to exist without sensory participation. When you fail to factor that 
critically important physical reality into physics, what you get is senseless 
fields and the absurdity of particle-waves and aetheric emptiness full mass.



Where does pure sense come from? Did it always exist? If so, how to explain 
that?

come from is an experience within sense, as is 'exist'. Explanation is how 
one sense experience is intentionally translated into another. 

Sense pre-figures all concepts, all existence, all explanations, not out of 
enigmatic mysticism but out of simple ontological definition. It is simply not 
possible for anything to exist in any way (i.e. in any 'sense') outside of 
sense. There has never been anything but sense.


Is pure sense unitary or plural? How do you explain the observable 
complexification of (this) universe?

Sense unifies plurality. The complexification of this universe is the 
proliferation and elaboration of sense experiences. That is the motive of 
sense. To make more and more and better sense.
 



What this does is push physics into a corner, so that everything beneath the 
classical limit becomes a Platonic fantasy of spontaneous appearance, and 
decoherence becomes the source of all coherence. It's tragically obvious to me 
- faced with a cosmos filled with concrete sensory appearances, of meaning and 
subjectivity, that we reach for its opposite - meaningless abstractions of 
multi-dimensional topologies and multverses. It's blind insanity. We are being 
led by the nose behind circular reasoning and instrumental assumptions. 

What if emptiness was actually empty? What if there is no such thing as a 
particle-wave? What if decoherence is not a plausible cause for the 
constellation of classical physics? Are the metaphysical assumptions of a 
Universe from Nothing falsifiable?



Are metaphysical assumptions ever falsifiable? Wouldn't they become scientific 
theories if they were? Are your assumptions falsifiable?

My assumptions require that we examine falsifiability itself in the context of 
sense. I find that if we do so, falsifiability can be understood as a function 
of privatizing public qualities, and publicizing private qualities. In other 
words I am seeing the idea of objectivity

Re: Re: Re: Re: Re: Is there an aether ?

2013-01-23 Thread Craig Weinberg


On Wednesday, January 23, 2013 6:21:10 AM UTC-5, rclough wrote:

  Hi Craig Weinberg 
  
  
 But if plants and animals experience the world at the same time
 as humans,


They do, of course. They experience what they are able to experience of the 
world just as we do.
 

 wouldn't there be a strange population of objects,
 and wouldn't there be the problem of two objects being
 in the same space ?


No, there would be exactly what there is. 

If a child experiences a kitchen counter as being a place that is too high 
to reach, does that preclude an adult from seeing that same kitchen counter 
as being a surface which is reached conveniently? If you sit in a room with 
your wife on one side of the couch, does that mean that the experience of 
the room can't also exist in which you are on the other side of the couch?

  

 

 - Receiving the following content - 
 *From:* Craig Weinberg javascript: 
 *Receiver:* everything-list javascript: 
 *Time:* 2013-01-22, 15:38:50
 *Subject:* Re: Re: Re: Re: Is there an aether ?

  

 On Tuesday, January 22, 2013 7:22:06 AM UTC-5, rclough wrote: 

  Hi Craig Weinberg 
  
 If you knew more about the history of philsophy,
 you'd know that Berkeley finally had to admit that the world out
 there is real prior to our individual observation because
 it is all observed by God.
  


 That doesn't have anything to do with your straw man of my position. I 
 have never once said that existence is contingent upon *human*consciousness. 
 I state again and again that it is experience itself - the 
 capacity for sensory-motor participation which is the progenitor of all 
 possible forms of 'existence'. Something 'being' means that there is an 
 experience, otherwise there is no possibility of anything ever coming into 
 being.

   

 - Receiving the following content - 
 *From:* Craig Weinberg 
 *Receiver:* everything-list 
 *Time:* 2013-01-21, 11:53:45
 *Subject:* Re: Re: Re: Is there an aether ?

  

 On Monday, January 21, 2013 4:53:25 AM UTC-5, rclough wrote: 

  Hi Craig Weinberg 
  
 That is such a silly pov. 


 Because it's your pov, not mine. You don't understand what I am talking 
 about so you keep pointing at a Straw Man misinterpretation of Berkeleyan 
 idealism.
  

  If a boulder
 fell off of a cliff above you onto you that 
 you didn't see, would it hurt you or not ?


 It depends if I was in a coma or not. If a boulder fell on you while you 
 were in a coma, and you remained in a coma for another year, there would be 
 no 'hurt' caused by the boulder - at least not to you personally...to your 
 cells and organs, that's another matter.
  

  - Receiving the following content - 
 *From:* Craig Weinberg 
 *Receiver:* everything-list 
 *Time:* 2013-01-20, 15:47:31
 *Subject:* Re: Re: Is there an aether ?

  

 On Sunday, January 20, 2013 2:40:53 PM UTC-5, rclough wrote: 

  Hi Craig Weinberg 
  
 So the world did not exist before man ?


 The world existed before man, but not before experience. Man does not 
 define all experience in the universe.
  

   
  

 - Receiving the following content - 
 *From:* Craig Weinberg 
 *Receiver:* everything-list 
 *Time:* 2013-01-20, 11:20:07
 *Subject:* Re: Is there an aether ?

  

 On Sunday, January 20, 2013 8:20:32 AM UTC-5, telmo_menezes wrote: 

 Hi Craig, 

 On Sun, Jan 20, 2013 at 4:37 AM, Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.comwrote:
  
 The whole worldview is built on the mistaken assumption that it is 
 possible for something to exist without sensory participation. When you 
 fail to factor that critically important physical reality into physics, 
 what you get is senseless fields and the absurdity of particle-waves and 
 aetheric emptiness full mass.


 Where does pure sense come from? Did it always exist? If so, how to 
 explain that?


 come from is an experience within sense, as is 'exist'. Explanation 
 is how one sense experience is intentionally translated into another. 

 Sense pre-figures all concepts, all existence, all explanations, not 
 out of enigmatic mysticism but out of simple ontological definition. It is 
 simply not possible for anything to exist in any way (i.e. in any 'sense') 
 outside of sense. There has never been anything but sense.

   Is pure sense unitary or plural? How do you explain the observable 
 complexification of (this) universe?


 Sense unifies plurality. The complexification of this universe is the 
 proliferation and elaboration of sense experiences. That is the motive of 
 sense. To make more and more and better sense.
  




 What this does is push physics into a corner, so that everything 
 beneath the classical limit becomes a Platonic fantasy of spontaneous 
 appearance, and decoherence becomes the source of all coherence. It's 
 tragically obvious to me - faced with a cosmos filled with concrete 
 sensory 
 appearances, of meaning and subjectivity, that we reach for its opposite 
 - 
 meaningless abstractions of multi-dimensional topologies

Re: Re: Re: Re: Is there an aether ?

2013-01-22 Thread Roger Clough
Hi Craig Weinberg 

If you knew more about the history of philsophy,
you'd know that Berkeley finally had to admit that the world out
there is real prior to our individual observation because
it is all observed by God.


- Receiving the following content - 
From: Craig Weinberg 
Receiver: everything-list 
Time: 2013-01-21, 11:53:45
Subject: Re: Re: Re: Is there an aether ?




On Monday, January 21, 2013 4:53:25 AM UTC-5, rclough wrote:
Hi Craig Weinberg 

That is such a silly pov. 

Because it's your pov, not mine. You don't understand what I am talking about 
so you keep pointing at a Straw Man misinterpretation of Berkeleyan idealism.
 

If a boulder
fell off of a cliff above you onto you that 
you didn't see, would it hurt you or not ?

It depends if I was in a coma or not. If a boulder fell on you while you were 
in a coma, and you remained in a coma for another year, there would be no 
'hurt' caused by the boulder - at least not to you personally...to your cells 
and organs, that's another matter.
 

- Receiving the following content - 
From: Craig Weinberg 
Receiver: everything-list 
Time: 2013-01-20, 15:47:31
Subject: Re: Re: Is there an aether ?




On Sunday, January 20, 2013 2:40:53 PM UTC-5, rclough wrote: 
Hi Craig Weinberg 

So the world did not exist before man ?

The world existed before man, but not before experience. Man does not define 
all experience in the universe.
 



- Receiving the following content - 
From: Craig Weinberg 
Receiver: everything-list 
Time: 2013-01-20, 11:20:07
Subject: Re: Is there an aether ?




On Sunday, January 20, 2013 8:20:32 AM UTC-5, telmo_menezes wrote: 
Hi Craig, 

On Sun, Jan 20, 2013 at 4:37 AM, Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.com wrote:

The whole worldview is built on the mistaken assumption that it is possible for 
something to exist without sensory participation. When you fail to factor that 
critically important physical reality into physics, what you get is senseless 
fields and the absurdity of particle-waves and aetheric emptiness full mass.



Where does pure sense come from? Did it always exist? If so, how to explain 
that?

come from is an experience within sense, as is 'exist'. Explanation is how 
one sense experience is intentionally translated into another. 

Sense pre-figures all concepts, all existence, all explanations, not out of 
enigmatic mysticism but out of simple ontological definition. It is simply not 
possible for anything to exist in any way (i.e. in any 'sense') outside of 
sense. There has never been anything but sense.


Is pure sense unitary or plural? How do you explain the observable 
complexification of (this) universe?

Sense unifies plurality. The complexification of this universe is the 
proliferation and elaboration of sense experiences. That is the motive of 
sense. To make more and more and better sense.
 



What this does is push physics into a corner, so that everything beneath the 
classical limit becomes a Platonic fantasy of spontaneous appearance, and 
decoherence becomes the source of all coherence. It's tragically obvious to me 
- faced with a cosmos filled with concrete sensory appearances, of meaning and 
subjectivity, that we reach for its opposite - meaningless abstractions of 
multi-dimensional topologies and multverses. It's blind insanity. We are being 
led by the nose behind circular reasoning and instrumental assumptions. 

What if emptiness was actually empty? What if there is no such thing as a 
particle-wave? What if decoherence is not a plausible cause for the 
constellation of classical physics? Are the metaphysical assumptions of a 
Universe from Nothing falsifiable?



Are metaphysical assumptions ever falsifiable? Wouldn't they become scientific 
theories if they were? Are your assumptions falsifiable?

My assumptions require that we examine falsifiability itself in the context of 
sense. I find that if we do so, falsifiability can be understood as a function 
of privatizing public qualities, and publicizing private qualities. In other 
words I am seeing the idea of objectivity itself from an even more objective 
perspective. In that sense I am not trying to make a theory which is consistent 
with any particular school of expectation, only to observe and catalog the 
phenomenon itself.

Craig
 



We have to go back to the beginning. What are we using to measure particles? 
What are we assuming about energy?

Craig 



On Saturday, January 19, 2013 5:14:03 PM UTC-5, Brent wrote: 
On 1/19/2013 8:48 AM, Laurent R Duchesne wrote: 
Empty Space is not Empty! 

http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=y4D6qY2c0Z8 

The so-called Higgs field is just another name for Einstein's gravitational 
aether. 

No.  There's no gravitational aether.  Einstein never suggested such.  And 
gravity doesn't depend on the Higgs field.


Mass is the result of matter's field interactions within itself and the space 
in which it sits, hence, the Higgs mechanism. 


You need to remember that it's mass

Re: Re: Re: Re: Is there an aether ?

2013-01-22 Thread Richard Ruquist
On Tue, Jan 22, 2013 at 3:54 PM, Craig Weinberg whatsons...@gmail.com wrote:


 On Tuesday, January 22, 2013 3:49:09 PM UTC-5, yanniru wrote:

 On Tue, Jan 22, 2013 at 3:38 PM, Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.com
 wrote:
  That doesn't have anything to do with your straw man of my position. I
  have
  never once said that existence is contingent upon human consciousness. I
  state again and again that it is experience itself - the capacity for
  sensory-motor participation which is the progenitor of all possible
  forms of
  'existence'. Something 'being' means that there is an experience,
  otherwise
  there is no possibility of anything ever coming into being.

 However, in a static Block MWI Universe there is no need for time or
 consciousness or experience.


 Then in what sense does it 'exist'?

It must be an illusion. Either that or MWI is an illusion. Doesn't
Bruno say that matter is a dream or illusion? Richard



 That seems to be Bruno's multiverse.
 Although I wonder if his 1p perspective is equivalent to your
 motor-sensory experience in order to make time, consciousness
 necessary?
 Richard

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Re: Re: Re: Re: Is there an aether ?

2013-01-22 Thread John Mikes
Richard:
and what is  -  NOT  - an illusion? are you? or me?
we have no way to ascertain existence and qualia, we just THINK.
Our science is based on SOME info we don't know exactly, not even if it is
like we think it is. We calculate in our human logic (stupidity would be
more accurate) and then comes a newer enlightenment and we change it all.
Brent wrote a nice list of such changes lately. I use the classic Flat
Earth.
But we live happily ever after and before (not knowing if TIME does indeed
exist?). And some of us get Nobel prizes. Congrats.

So: happy illusions!

John Mikes

On Tue, Jan 22, 2013 at 4:20 PM, Richard Ruquist yann...@gmail.com wrote:

 On Tue, Jan 22, 2013 at 3:54 PM, Craig Weinberg whatsons...@gmail.com
 wrote:
 
 
  On Tuesday, January 22, 2013 3:49:09 PM UTC-5, yanniru wrote:
 
  On Tue, Jan 22, 2013 at 3:38 PM, Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.com
  wrote:
   That doesn't have anything to do with your straw man of my position. I
   have
   never once said that existence is contingent upon human
 consciousness. I
   state again and again that it is experience itself - the capacity for
   sensory-motor participation which is the progenitor of all possible
   forms of
   'existence'. Something 'being' means that there is an experience,
   otherwise
   there is no possibility of anything ever coming into being.
 
  However, in a static Block MWI Universe there is no need for time or
  consciousness or experience.
 
 
  Then in what sense does it 'exist'?

 It must be an illusion. Either that or MWI is an illusion. Doesn't
 Bruno say that matter is a dream or illusion? Richard

 
 
  That seems to be Bruno's multiverse.
  Although I wonder if his 1p perspective is equivalent to your
  motor-sensory experience in order to make time, consciousness
  necessary?
  Richard
 
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Re: Re: Re: Re: Is there an aether ?

2013-01-22 Thread Craig Weinberg


On Tuesday, January 22, 2013 4:20:58 PM UTC-5, yanniru wrote:

 On Tue, Jan 22, 2013 at 3:54 PM, Craig Weinberg 
 whats...@gmail.comjavascript: 
 wrote: 
  
  
  On Tuesday, January 22, 2013 3:49:09 PM UTC-5, yanniru wrote: 
  
  On Tue, Jan 22, 2013 at 3:38 PM, Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.com 
  wrote: 
   That doesn't have anything to do with your straw man of my position. 
 I 
   have 
   never once said that existence is contingent upon human 
 consciousness. I 
   state again and again that it is experience itself - the capacity for 
   sensory-motor participation which is the progenitor of all possible 
   forms of 
   'existence'. Something 'being' means that there is an experience, 
   otherwise 
   there is no possibility of anything ever coming into being. 
  
  However, in a static Block MWI Universe there is no need for time or 
  consciousness or experience. 
  
  
  Then in what sense does it 'exist'? 

 It must be an illusion. Either that or MWI is an illusion. Doesn't 
 Bruno say that matter is a dream or illusion? Richard 


I think MWI and block universe aren't even illusions, they are just ideas 
to defend mechanism against the fact that reality is only partially 
mechanistic.
 


  
  
  That seems to be Bruno's multiverse. 
  Although I wonder if his 1p perspective is equivalent to your 
  motor-sensory experience in order to make time, consciousness 
  necessary? 
  Richard 
  
  -- 
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Re: Re: Re: Is there an aether ?

2013-01-21 Thread Roger Clough
Hi Craig Weinberg 

That is such a silly pov. If a boulder
fell off of a cliff above you onto you that 
you didn't see, would it hurt you or not ?
- Receiving the following content - 
From: Craig Weinberg 
Receiver: everything-list 
Time: 2013-01-20, 15:47:31
Subject: Re: Re: Is there an aether ?




On Sunday, January 20, 2013 2:40:53 PM UTC-5, rclough wrote:
Hi Craig Weinberg 

So the world did not exist before man ?

The world existed before man, but not before experience. Man does not define 
all experience in the universe.
 



- Receiving the following content - 
From: Craig Weinberg 
Receiver: everything-list 
Time: 2013-01-20, 11:20:07
Subject: Re: Is there an aether ?




On Sunday, January 20, 2013 8:20:32 AM UTC-5, telmo_menezes wrote: 
Hi Craig, 

On Sun, Jan 20, 2013 at 4:37 AM, Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.com wrote:

The whole worldview is built on the mistaken assumption that it is possible for 
something to exist without sensory participation. When you fail to factor that 
critically important physical reality into physics, what you get is senseless 
fields and the absurdity of particle-waves and aetheric emptiness full mass.



Where does pure sense come from? Did it always exist? If so, how to explain 
that?

come from is an experience within sense, as is 'exist'. Explanation is how 
one sense experience is intentionally translated into another. 

Sense pre-figures all concepts, all existence, all explanations, not out of 
enigmatic mysticism but out of simple ontological definition. It is simply not 
possible for anything to exist in any way (i.e. in any 'sense') outside of 
sense. There has never been anything but sense.


Is pure sense unitary or plural? How do you explain the observable 
complexification of (this) universe?

Sense unifies plurality. The complexification of this universe is the 
proliferation and elaboration of sense experiences. That is the motive of 
sense. To make more and more and better sense.
 



What this does is push physics into a corner, so that everything beneath the 
classical limit becomes a Platonic fantasy of spontaneous appearance, and 
decoherence becomes the source of all coherence. It's tragically obvious to me 
- faced with a cosmos filled with concrete sensory appearances, of meaning and 
subjectivity, that we reach for its opposite - meaningless abstractions of 
multi-dimensional topologies and multverses. It's blind insanity. We are being 
led by the nose behind circular reasoning and instrumental assumptions. 

What if emptiness was actually empty? What if there is no such thing as a 
particle-wave? What if decoherence is not a plausible cause for the 
constellation of classical physics? Are the metaphysical assumptions of a 
Universe from Nothing falsifiable?



Are metaphysical assumptions ever falsifiable? Wouldn't they become scientific 
theories if they were? Are your assumptions falsifiable?

My assumptions require that we examine falsifiability itself in the context of 
sense. I find that if we do so, falsifiability can be understood as a function 
of privatizing public qualities, and publicizing private qualities. In other 
words I am seeing the idea of objectivity itself from an even more objective 
perspective. In that sense I am not trying to make a theory which is consistent 
with any particular school of expectation, only to observe and catalog the 
phenomenon itself.

Craig
 



We have to go back to the beginning. What are we using to measure particles? 
What are we assuming about energy?

Craig 



On Saturday, January 19, 2013 5:14:03 PM UTC-5, Brent wrote: 
On 1/19/2013 8:48 AM, Laurent R Duchesne wrote: 
Empty Space is not Empty! 

http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=y4D6qY2c0Z8 

The so-called Higgs field is just another name for Einstein's gravitational 
aether. 

No.  There's no gravitational aether.  Einstein never suggested such.  And 
gravity doesn't depend on the Higgs field.


Mass is the result of matter's field interactions within itself and the space 
in which it sits, hence, the Higgs mechanism. 


You need to remember that it's mass-energy.  Photons gravitate even though they 
don't have rest mass.  Most of the mass of nucleons comes from the kinetic 
energy of the quarks bound by gluons, not the Higgs effect.



Particles can emerge anywhere and as needed, e.g., particle pair creation, but 
from where, and what do they feed from, creation ex nihilo? That seems like a 
physical impossibility. Anyway, why would we have wave-particle complementarity 
if it were not because matter depends on the substrate? Isn't this the reason 
why we need a Higgs mechanism? 


Wave-particle complementarity applies to massless particles too; Einstein got 
the Nobel prize for explaining the photo-electric effect.

Brent

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Re: Re: Re: Is there an aether ?

2013-01-21 Thread Craig Weinberg


On Monday, January 21, 2013 4:53:25 AM UTC-5, rclough wrote:

  Hi Craig Weinberg 
  
 That is such a silly pov. 


Because it's your pov, not mine. You don't understand what I am talking 
about so you keep pointing at a Straw Man misinterpretation of Berkeleyan 
idealism.
 

 If a boulder
 fell off of a cliff above you onto you that 
 you didn't see, would it hurt you or not ?


It depends if I was in a coma or not. If a boulder fell on you while you 
were in a coma, and you remained in a coma for another year, there would be 
no 'hurt' caused by the boulder - at least not to you personally...to your 
cells and organs, that's another matter.
 

  - Receiving the following content - 
 *From:* Craig Weinberg javascript: 
 *Receiver:* everything-list javascript: 
 *Time:* 2013-01-20, 15:47:31
 *Subject:* Re: Re: Is there an aether ?

  

 On Sunday, January 20, 2013 2:40:53 PM UTC-5, rclough wrote: 

  Hi Craig Weinberg 
  
 So the world did not exist before man ?


 The world existed before man, but not before experience. Man does not 
 define all experience in the universe.
  

   
  

 - Receiving the following content - 
 *From:* Craig Weinberg 
 *Receiver:* everything-list 
 *Time:* 2013-01-20, 11:20:07
 *Subject:* Re: Is there an aether ?

  

 On Sunday, January 20, 2013 8:20:32 AM UTC-5, telmo_menezes wrote: 

 Hi Craig, 

 On Sun, Jan 20, 2013 at 4:37 AM, Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.comwrote:
  
 The whole worldview is built on the mistaken assumption that it is 
 possible for something to exist without sensory participation. When you 
 fail to factor that critically important physical reality into physics, 
 what you get is senseless fields and the absurdity of particle-waves and 
 aetheric emptiness full mass.


 Where does pure sense come from? Did it always exist? If so, how to 
 explain that?


 come from is an experience within sense, as is 'exist'. Explanation is 
 how one sense experience is intentionally translated into another. 

 Sense pre-figures all concepts, all existence, all explanations, not out 
 of enigmatic mysticism but out of simple ontological definition. It is 
 simply not possible for anything to exist in any way (i.e. in any 'sense') 
 outside of sense. There has never been anything but sense.

   Is pure sense unitary or plural? How do you explain the observable 
 complexification of (this) universe?


 Sense unifies plurality. The complexification of this universe is the 
 proliferation and elaboration of sense experiences. That is the motive of 
 sense. To make more and more and better sense.
  




 What this does is push physics into a corner, so that everything 
 beneath the classical limit becomes a Platonic fantasy of spontaneous 
 appearance, and decoherence becomes the source of all coherence. It's 
 tragically obvious to me - faced with a cosmos filled with concrete 
 sensory 
 appearances, of meaning and subjectivity, that we reach for its opposite - 
 meaningless abstractions of multi-dimensional topologies and multverses. 
 It's blind insanity. We are being led by the nose behind circular 
 reasoning 
 and instrumental assumptions. 

 What if emptiness was actually empty? What if there is no such thing as 
 a particle-wave? What if decoherence is not a plausible cause for the 
 constellation of classical physics? Are the metaphysical assumptions of a 
 Universe from Nothing falsifiable?


 Are metaphysical assumptions ever falsifiable? Wouldn't they become 
 scientific theories if they were? Are your assumptions falsifiable?


 My assumptions require that we examine falsifiability itself in the 
 context of sense. I find that if we do so, falsifiability can be understood 
 as a function of privatizing public qualities, and publicizing private 
 qualities. In other words I am seeing the idea of objectivity itself from 
 an even more objective perspective. In that sense I am not trying to make a 
 theory which is consistent with any particular school of expectation, only 
 to observe and catalog the phenomenon itself.

 Craig
  




 We have to go back to the beginning. What are we using to measure 
 particles? What are we assuming about energy?

 Craig 



 On Saturday, January 19, 2013 5:14:03 PM UTC-5, Brent wrote: 

 On 1/19/2013 8:48 AM, Laurent R Duchesne wrote: 

 Empty Space is not Empty! 

 http://www.youtube.com/watch?**v=y4D6qY2c0Z8http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=y4D6qY2c0Z8
  

 The so-called Higgs field is just another name for Einstein's 
 gravitational aether. 


 No.  There's no gravitational aether.  Einstein never suggested such.  
 And gravity doesn't depend on the Higgs field.

 Mass is the result of matter's field interactions within itself and 
 the space in which it sits, hence, the Higgs mechanism. 


 You need to remember that it's mass-energy.  Photons gravitate even 
 though they don't have rest mass.  Most of the mass of nucleons comes 
 from 
 the kinetic energy of the quarks bound by gluons, not the Higgs

Re: Re: Is there an aether ?

2013-01-20 Thread Craig Weinberg


On Sunday, January 20, 2013 2:40:53 PM UTC-5, rclough wrote:

  Hi Craig Weinberg 
  
 So the world did not exist before man ?


The world existed before man, but not before experience. Man does not 
define all experience in the universe.
 

  
  

 - Receiving the following content - 
 *From:* Craig Weinberg javascript: 
 *Receiver:* everything-list javascript: 
 *Time:* 2013-01-20, 11:20:07
 *Subject:* Re: Is there an aether ?

  

 On Sunday, January 20, 2013 8:20:32 AM UTC-5, telmo_menezes wrote: 

 Hi Craig, 

 On Sun, Jan 20, 2013 at 4:37 AM, Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.comwrote:
  
 The whole worldview is built on the mistaken assumption that it is 
 possible for something to exist without sensory participation. When you 
 fail to factor that critically important physical reality into physics, 
 what you get is senseless fields and the absurdity of particle-waves and 
 aetheric emptiness full mass.


 Where does pure sense come from? Did it always exist? If so, how to 
 explain that?


 come from is an experience within sense, as is 'exist'. Explanation is 
 how one sense experience is intentionally translated into another. 

 Sense pre-figures all concepts, all existence, all explanations, not out 
 of enigmatic mysticism but out of simple ontological definition. It is 
 simply not possible for anything to exist in any way (i.e. in any 'sense') 
 outside of sense. There has never been anything but sense.

   Is pure sense unitary or plural? How do you explain the observable 
 complexification of (this) universe?


 Sense unifies plurality. The complexification of this universe is the 
 proliferation and elaboration of sense experiences. That is the motive of 
 sense. To make more and more and better sense.
  




 What this does is push physics into a corner, so that everything beneath 
 the classical limit becomes a Platonic fantasy of spontaneous appearance, 
 and decoherence becomes the source of all coherence. It's tragically 
 obvious to me - faced with a cosmos filled with concrete sensory 
 appearances, of meaning and subjectivity, that we reach for its opposite - 
 meaningless abstractions of multi-dimensional topologies and multverses. 
 It's blind insanity. We are being led by the nose behind circular reasoning 
 and instrumental assumptions. 

 What if emptiness was actually empty? What if there is no such thing as 
 a particle-wave? What if decoherence is not a plausible cause for the 
 constellation of classical physics? Are the metaphysical assumptions of a 
 Universe from Nothing falsifiable?


 Are metaphysical assumptions ever falsifiable? Wouldn't they become 
 scientific theories if they were? Are your assumptions falsifiable?


 My assumptions require that we examine falsifiability itself in the 
 context of sense. I find that if we do so, falsifiability can be understood 
 as a function of privatizing public qualities, and publicizing private 
 qualities. In other words I am seeing the idea of objectivity itself from 
 an even more objective perspective. In that sense I am not trying to make a 
 theory which is consistent with any particular school of expectation, only 
 to observe and catalog the phenomenon itself.

 Craig
  




 We have to go back to the beginning. What are we using to measure 
 particles? What are we assuming about energy?

 Craig 



 On Saturday, January 19, 2013 5:14:03 PM UTC-5, Brent wrote: 

 On 1/19/2013 8:48 AM, Laurent R Duchesne wrote: 

 Empty Space is not Empty! 

 http://www.youtube.com/watch?**v=y4D6qY2c0Z8http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=y4D6qY2c0Z8
  

 The so-called Higgs field is just another name for Einstein's 
 gravitational aether. 


 No.  There's no gravitational aether.  Einstein never suggested such.  
 And gravity doesn't depend on the Higgs field.

 Mass is the result of matter's field interactions within itself and the 
 space in which it sits, hence, the Higgs mechanism. 


 You need to remember that it's mass-energy.  Photons gravitate even 
 though they don't have rest mass.  Most of the mass of nucleons comes from 
 the kinetic energy of the quarks bound by gluons, not the Higgs effect.


 Particles can emerge anywhere and as needed, e.g., particle pair 
 creation, but from where, and what do they feed from, creation ex nihilo? 
 That seems like a physical impossibility. Anyway, why would we have 
 wave-particle complementarity if it were not because matter depends on the 
 substrate? Isn't this the reason why we need a Higgs mechanism? 


 Wave-particle complementarity applies to massless particles too; 
 Einstein got the Nobel prize for explaining the photo-electric effect.

 Brent

 -- 
 You received this message because you are subscribed to the Google 
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