Re: truth of experience

2014-03-13 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 12 Mar 2014, at 21:14, meekerdb wrote:


On 3/12/2014 8:33 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:

Hello Terren,


On 12 Mar 2014, at 04:34, Terren Suydam wrote:


Hi Bruno,

Thanks, that helps. Can you expand a bit on t?  Unfortunately I  
haven't had the time to follow the modal logic threads, so please  
forgive me but I don't understand how you could represent reality  
with t.



Shortly, A most general meaning is that the proposition A is  
possible.


Modal logician uses the word world in a very general sense, it  
can mean situation, state, and actually it can mean anything.


To argue for example that it is possible that  a dog is dangerous,  
would consist in showing a situation, or a world, or a reality in  
which a dog is dangerous.


so you can read A, as A is possible, or possible(A), with the  
idea that this means that there is a reality in which A is true.


Reality is not represented by A, it is more the existence of a  
reality verifying a proposition.


In particular, t, which is t is possible, where t is the  
constant true, or 1=1 in arithmetic, simply means that there is a  
reality.


t is possible looks like a category error to me.


t is equivalent with (p - p), it is the constant boolean valued  
function true. So t is an admissible atomic formula and  applies  
to all formula.


In the arithmetical interpretation (of the modal logic G), t is  
consistent('~(0=1)'), that is ~beweisbar('~(0=1)').


NOT PROVABLE FALSE = CONSISTENT TRUE.

~[]f  = t

This is standard use, in both modal logic and meta-arithmetic.





  A is possible means A refers to the state of some world.


No. It refers to a state, or to a world, or to a number, or to a cow.  
At this abstraction level, some world looks like a 1004 distracting  
pseudo-information. We are not doing metaphysics, just math, which  
then is applied to formulate the comp measure problem, and get quantum  
logic from there.




I don't see that t or 1=1 refers to some world, they are just  
tautologies, artifacts of language.


t is indeed a tautology, that is a proposition true (by definition) in  
all possible worlds (a world here is simply a function from the set  
of atomic sentences letter in {0, 1}, or {false, true}.


But 1=1 cannot be deduced from logic alone, and you need primitive  
terms, like s and 0, to name the non trivial object s(0), and you need  
some axioms on equality, =. Usually x = x, is an axiom.


In particular 1 = 1 does refer to a reality, which is the usual  
(standard) model of arithmetic, denoted by the mathematical structure  
(N, +, x).


1=1 is supposed to refer to that (mathematical) reality.






This, Aristotle and Leibniz understood, but Kripke enriched the  
notion of possibility by making the notion of possibility  
relative to the world you actually are.


Somehow, for the machine talking in first predicate logic, like PA  
and ZF, more can be said, once we interpret the modal box by the  
Gödelian beweisbar('p'), which can be translated in arithmetic.


First order theories have a nice metamathematical property,  
discovered by Gödel (in his PhD thesis), and know as completeness,  
which (here) means that provability is equivalent with truth in all  
models, where models are mathematical structure which can verify or  
not, but in a well defined mathematical sense, a formula of  
classical first order logical theories.
For example PA proves some sentences A, if and only if, A is true  
in all models of PA.


If []A is provability (beweisbar('A')), the dual A is consistency  
(~beweisbar('~A').


A = ~[]~A.

~A  is equivalent with  A - f   (as you can verify by doing the  
truth table)


 A = ~[]~A =  ~([](A - f))

Saying that you cannot prove a contradiction (f),  from A, means  
that A is consistent.


So t means, for PA, with the arithmetical translation  
~beweisbar('~t'), = ~beweisbar('f'), that PA is consistent, and by  
Gödel completeness theorem, this means that there is a mathematical  
structure (model) verifying 1=1.


So, although ~beweisbar('~t'), is an arithmetical proposition  
having some meaning in term of syntactical object (proofs)  
existence, it is also a way for PA, or Löbian entities, to refer,  
implicitly at first, to the existence of a reality.


But why should the failure to prove f imply anything about reality?


Because it preserves the hope that there is a reality to which you are  
connected.


If you prove 1=1 in classical logic, you can prove anything, you get  
inconsistent. There might still be a reality, but you are not  
connected to it.


You are in a cul-de-sac world, when seen in Kripke semantics of G.  
But don't take this in any literal way, except in terms of the  
behavior, including discourse of the machine.


The theory is correct for any arithmetically effective machines having  
sound extension beliefs of those beliefs:


0 ≠ (x + 1)
((x + 1) = (y + 1))  - x = y
x + 0 = x
x + (y + 1) = (x + y) + 1
x * 0 = 0
x * (y + 1) = (x * y) + x

+ the induction 

Re: truth of experience

2014-03-13 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 12 Mar 2014, at 21:51, LizR wrote:


On 13 March 2014 04:33, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:
Hello Terren,

On 12 Mar 2014, at 04:34, Terren Suydam wrote:

Hi Bruno,

Thanks, that helps. Can you expand a bit on t?  Unfortunately I  
haven't had the time to follow the modal logic threads, so please  
forgive me but I don't understand how you could represent reality  
with t.
Shortly, A most general meaning is that the proposition A is  
possible.


Modal logician uses the word world in a very general sense, it can  
mean situation, state, and actually it can mean anything.


To argue for example that it is possible that  a dog is dangerous,  
would consist in showing a situation, or a world, or a reality in  
which a dog is dangerous.


so you can read A, as A is possible, or possible(A), with the  
idea that this means that there is a reality in which A is true.


Reality is not represented by A, it is more the existence of a  
reality verifying a proposition.


In particular, t, which is t is possible, where t is the  
constant true, or 1=1 in arithmetic, simply means that there is a  
reality.


You mean t asserts there is a reality in which the relevant  
proposition is true (e.g. one in which the dog is dangerous) ?


Exactly. (Although possible(dog is dangerous) is more (dog-is- 
dangerous) than t, which is more like possible(dog is dog).


That's Kripke semantics: A is true in alpha IF THERE IS A REALITY  
beta verifying A.


so

t is true in alpha if there is a reality beta verifying t.

Now, Kripke semantics extends classical propositional logic, and t is  
verified in all worlds. So, if alpha verifies t (if t is true in  
alpha), then t means simply that there is some world beta accessible  
(given that t is true in all world).


t = truth is possible = I am consistent = there is a reality  
out there = I am connected to a reality =truth is accessible.


Note that this well captured by modal logic, but also by important  
theorem for first order theories. In particular Gödel completeness  
theorem, which can put in this way: a theory is consistent if and only  
the theory has a model.


Gödel completeness (two equivalent versions):
- provable(p) (in a theory) entails p is true in all models of the  
theory.
- consistent(p) (in a theory) entails there is at least one model in  
which p is verified (true).


Bruno





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Re: truth of experience

2014-03-13 Thread meekerdb

On 3/13/2014 8:19 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 12 Mar 2014, at 21:14, meekerdb wrote:


On 3/12/2014 8:33 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:

Hello Terren,


On 12 Mar 2014, at 04:34, Terren Suydam wrote:


Hi Bruno,

Thanks, that helps. Can you expand a bit on t?  Unfortunately I haven't had the 
time to follow the modal logic threads, so please forgive me but I don't understand 
how you could represent reality with t.



Shortly, A most general meaning is that the proposition A is possible.

Modal logician uses the word world in a very general sense, it can mean situation, 
state, and actually it can mean anything.


To argue for example that it is possible that  a dog is dangerous, would consist in 
showing a situation, or a world, or a reality in which a dog is dangerous.


so you can read A, as A is possible, or possible(A), with the idea that this 
means that there is a reality in which A is true.


Reality is not represented by A, it is more the existence of a reality verifying 
a proposition.


In particular, t, which is t is possible, where t is the constant true, or 1=1 
in arithmetic, simply means that there is a reality.


t is possible looks like a category error to me.


t is equivalent with (p - p), it is the constant boolean valued function true. So t 
is an admissible atomic formula and  applies to all formula.


In the arithmetical interpretation (of the modal logic G), t is consistent('~(0=1)'), 
that is ~beweisbar('~(0=1)').


NOT PROVABLE FALSE = CONSISTENT TRUE.

~[]f  = t

This is standard use, in both modal logic and meta-arithmetic.





  A is possible means A refers to the state of some world.


No. It refers to a state, or to a world, or to a number, or to a cow. At this 
abstraction level, some world looks like a 1004 distracting pseudo-information. We are 
not doing metaphysics, just math, which then is applied to formulate the comp measure 
problem, and get quantum logic from there.




I don't see that t or 1=1 refers to some world, they are just tautologies, 
artifacts of language.


t is indeed a tautology, that is a proposition true (by definition) in all possible 
worlds (a world here is simply a function from the set of atomic sentences letter in 
{0, 1}, or {false, true}.


But 1=1 cannot be deduced from logic alone, and you need primitive terms, like s and 
0, to name the non trivial object s(0), and you need some axioms on equality, =. 
Usually x = x, is an axiom.


In particular 1 = 1 does refer to a reality, which is the usual (standard) model of 
arithmetic, denoted by the mathematical structure (N, +, x).


1=1 is supposed to refer to that (mathematical) reality.






This, Aristotle and Leibniz understood, but Kripke enriched the notion of 
possibility by making the notion of possibility relative to the world you actually are.


Somehow, for the machine talking in first predicate logic, like PA and ZF, more can be 
said, once we interpret the modal box by the Gödelian beweisbar('p'), which can be 
translated in arithmetic.


First order theories have a nice metamathematical property, discovered by Gödel (in 
his PhD thesis), and know as completeness, which (here) means that provability is 
equivalent with truth in all models, where models are mathematical structure which can 
verify or not, but in a well defined mathematical sense, a formula of classical first 
order logical theories.

For example PA proves some sentences A, if and only if, A is true in all models 
of PA.

If []A is provability (beweisbar('A')), the dual A is consistency 
(~beweisbar('~A').

A = ~[]~A.

~A  is equivalent with  A - f   (as you can verify by doing the truth table)

 A = ~[]~A =  ~([](A - f))

Saying that you cannot prove a contradiction (f),  from A, means that A is 
consistent.

So t means, for PA, with the arithmetical translation ~beweisbar('~t'), 
= ~beweisbar('f'), that PA is consistent, and by Gödel *_completeness_* theorem, this 
means that there is a mathematical structure (model) verifying 1=1.


So, although ~beweisbar('~t'), is an arithmetical proposition having some meaning in 
term of syntactical object (proofs) existence, it is also a way for PA, or Löbian 
entities, to refer, implicitly at first, to the existence of a reality.


But why should the failure to prove f imply anything about reality?


Because it preserves the hope that there is a reality to which you are 
connected.

If you prove 1=1 in classical logic, you can prove anything, you get inconsistent. 
There might still be a reality, but you are not connected to it.


Above you deflect the criticism of a category error by saying, We are not doing 
metaphysics, just math, which then is applied to formulate the comp measure problem, and 
get quantum logic from there.  But then it turns out you really are doing metaphysics. 
You are taking a tautology in mathematics and using it to infer things about reality and 
your relation to it.


Brent




You are in a cul-de-sac world, when seen in Kripke semantics of G. But 

Re: truth of experience

2014-03-13 Thread meekerdb

On 3/13/2014 8:33 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 12 Mar 2014, at 21:51, LizR wrote:


On 13 March 2014 04:33, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be 
mailto:marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

Hello Terren,

On 12 Mar 2014, at 04:34, Terren Suydam wrote:

Hi Bruno,

Thanks, that helps. Can you expand a bit on t?  Unfortunately I haven't 
had the
time to follow the modal logic threads, so please forgive me but I don't
understand how you could represent reality with t.

Shortly, A most general meaning is that the proposition A is possible.

Modal logician uses the word world in a very general sense, it can mean
situation, state, and actually it can mean anything.

To argue for example that it is possible that  a dog is dangerous, would 
consist in
showing a situation, or a world, or a reality in which a dog is dangerous.

so you can read A, as A is possible, or possible(A), with the idea 
that this
means that there is a reality in which A is true.

Reality is not represented by A, it is more the existence of a reality
verifying a proposition.

In particular, t, which is t is possible, where t is the constant true, 
or
1=1 in arithmetic, simply means that there is a reality.


You mean t asserts there is a reality in which the relevant proposition is true (e.g. 
one in which the dog is dangerous) ?


Exactly. (Although possible(dog is dangerous) is more (dog-is-dangerous) than t, 
which is more like possible(dog is dog).


That's Kripke semantics: A is true in alpha IF THERE IS A REALITY beta 
verifying A.

so

t is true in alpha if there is a reality beta verifying t.

Now, Kripke semantics extends classical propositional logic, and t is verified in all 
worlds.


This is a point that confuses me in trying your exercises (which I'm attempting to do 
without reading your exchanges with Liz).  There you refer to a formula being respected 
when it is true in all worlds for all valuations.  But does all valuations of a formula 
A include f when A=p-p?  Are we to assume that t is a formula in all worlds and it's 
value is always t?  And then is f also a formula in every world?


Brent


So, if alpha verifies t (if t is true in alpha), then t means simply that there is 
some world beta accessible (given that t is true in all world).


t = truth is possible = I am consistent = there is a reality out there = I am 
connected to a reality =truth is accessible.


Note that this well captured by modal logic, but also by important theorem for first 
order theories. In particular Gödel completeness theorem, which can put in this way: a 
theory is consistent if and only the theory has a model.


Gödel completeness (two equivalent versions):
- provable(p) (in a theory) entails p is true in all models of the theory.
- consistent(p) (in a theory) entails there is at least one model in which p is verified 
(true).


Bruno





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Re: truth of experience

2014-03-13 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 13 Mar 2014, at 17:56, meekerdb wrote:


On 3/13/2014 8:19 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 12 Mar 2014, at 21:14, meekerdb wrote:


On 3/12/2014 8:33 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:

Hello Terren,


On 12 Mar 2014, at 04:34, Terren Suydam wrote:


Hi Bruno,

Thanks, that helps. Can you expand a bit on t?  Unfortunately  
I haven't had the time to follow the modal logic threads, so  
please forgive me but I don't understand how you could represent  
reality with t.



Shortly, A most general meaning is that the proposition A  
is possible.


Modal logician uses the word world in a very general sense, it  
can mean situation, state, and actually it can mean anything.


To argue for example that it is possible that  a dog is  
dangerous, would consist in showing a situation, or a world, or a  
reality in which a dog is dangerous.


so you can read A, as A is possible, or possible(A), with  
the idea that this means that there is a reality in which A is  
true.


Reality is not represented by A, it is more the existence of  
a reality verifying a proposition.


In particular, t, which is t is possible, where t is the  
constant true, or 1=1 in arithmetic, simply means that there is  
a reality.


t is possible looks like a category error to me.


t is equivalent with (p - p), it is the constant boolean valued  
function true. So t is an admissible atomic formula and   
applies to all formula.


In the arithmetical interpretation (of the modal logic G), t is  
consistent('~(0=1)'), that is ~beweisbar('~(0=1)').


NOT PROVABLE FALSE = CONSISTENT TRUE.

~[]f  = t

This is standard use, in both modal logic and meta-arithmetic.





  A is possible means A refers to the state of some world.


No. It refers to a state, or to a world, or to a number, or to a  
cow. At this abstraction level, some world looks like a 1004  
distracting pseudo-information. We are not doing metaphysics, just  
math, which then is applied to formulate the comp measure problem,  
and get quantum logic from there.




I don't see that t or 1=1 refers to some world, they are just  
tautologies, artifacts of language.


t is indeed a tautology, that is a proposition true (by definition)  
in all possible worlds (a world here is simply a function from  
the set of atomic sentences letter in {0, 1}, or {false, true}.


But 1=1 cannot be deduced from logic alone, and you need  
primitive terms, like s and 0, to name the non trivial object s(0),  
and you need some axioms on equality, =. Usually x = x, is an  
axiom.


In particular 1 = 1 does refer to a reality, which is the usual  
(standard) model of arithmetic, denoted by the   
mathematical structure (N, +, x).


1=1 is supposed to refer to that (mathematical) reality.






This, Aristotle and Leibniz understood, but Kripke enriched the  
notion of possibility by making the notion of possibility  
relative to the world you actually are.


Somehow, for the machine talking in first predicate logic, like  
PA and ZF, more can be said, once we interpret the modal box by  
the Gödelian beweisbar('p'), which can be translated in  
arithmetic.


First order theories have a nice metamathematical property,  
discovered by Gödel (in his PhD thesis), and know as  
completeness, which (here) means that provability is equivalent  
with truth in all models, where models are mathematical structure  
which can verify or not, but in a well defined mathematical  
sense, a formula of classical first order logical theories.
For example PA proves some sentences A, if and only if, A is true  
in all models of PA.


If []A is provability (beweisbar('A')), the dual A is  
consistency (~beweisbar('~A').


A = ~[]~A.

~A  is equivalent with  A - f   (as you can verify by doing the  
truth table)


 A = ~[]~A =  ~([](A - f))

Saying that you cannot prove a contradiction (f),  from A, means  
that A is consistent.


So t means, for PA, with the arithmetical translation  
~beweisbar('~t'), = ~beweisbar('f'), that PA is consistent, and  
by Gödel completeness theorem, this means that there is a  
mathematical structure (model) verifying 1=1.


So, although ~beweisbar('~t'), is an arithmetical proposition  
having some meaning in term of syntactical object (proofs)  
existence, it is also a way for PA, or Löbian entities, to refer,  
implicitly at first, to the existence of a reality.


But why should the failure to prove f imply anything about reality?


Because it preserves the hope that there is a reality to which you  
are connected.


If you prove 1=1 in classical logic, you can prove anything, you  
get inconsistent. There might still be a reality, but you are not  
connected to it.


Above you deflect the criticism of a category error by saying, We  
are not doing metaphysics, just math, which then is applied to  
formulate the comp measure problem, and get quantum logic from  
there.  But then it turns out you really are doing metaphysics.   
You are taking a tautology in mathematics and using it to infer  

Re: truth of experience

2014-03-13 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 13 Mar 2014, at 18:03, meekerdb wrote:


On 3/13/2014 8:33 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 12 Mar 2014, at 21:51, LizR wrote:


On 13 March 2014 04:33, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:
Hello Terren,

On 12 Mar 2014, at 04:34, Terren Suydam wrote:

Hi Bruno,

Thanks, that helps. Can you expand a bit on t?  Unfortunately I  
haven't had the time to follow the modal logic threads, so please  
forgive me but I don't understand how you could represent reality  
with t.
Shortly, A most general meaning is that the proposition A is  
possible.


Modal logician uses the word world in a very general sense, it  
can mean situation, state, and actually it can mean anything.


To argue for example that it is possible that  a dog is dangerous,  
would consist in showing a situation, or a world, or a reality in  
which a dog is dangerous.


so you can read A, as A is possible, or possible(A), with  
the idea that this means that there is a reality in which A is true.


Reality is not represented by A, it is more the existence of  
a reality verifying a proposition.


In particular, t, which is t is possible, where t is the  
constant true, or 1=1 in arithmetic, simply means that there is  
a reality.


You mean t asserts there is a reality in which the relevant  
proposition is true (e.g. one in which the dog is dangerous) ?


Exactly. (Although possible(dog is dangerous) is more (dog-is- 
dangerous) than t, which is more like possible(dog is dog).


That's Kripke semantics: A is true in alpha IF THERE IS A  
REALITY beta verifying A.


so

t is true in alpha if there is a reality beta verifying t.

Now, Kripke semantics extends classical propositional logic, and t  
is verified in all worlds.


This is a point that confuses me in trying your exercises (which I'm  
attempting to do without reading your exchanges with Liz).  There  
you refer to a formula being respected when it is true in all  
worlds for all valuations.  But does all valuations of a formula A  
include f when A=p-p?


No, the valuations are defined only on the atomic  p, q, r,  (in  
modal propositional logic).
Then the arbitrary formula get their value by the truth table, and the  
modal formula get their value by the Kripke semantics, that is, the  
truth values of the boxed an diamonded propositions depends on the  
locally accessible worlds.





Are we to assume that t is a formula in all worlds and it's value  
is always t?


Yes. It is a boolean constant. You can suppress it and replaced it by  
(p - p), as this is true in all words (as this is true in the worlds  
where p is true, and is true in the worlds where p is false).







And then is f also a formula in every world?


You can represent it by (p  ~p), or just ~t, and it is false in every  
world.


The cul-de-sac worlds get close, as they verify []f.

Fortunately they don't verify []A - A.

f is never met, in any world, but you can met []f, [][]f, [][][]f, ...  
G* proves ◊[]f, ◊[][]f,◊[][][]f, ... in the G-worlds.


(Do everyone see a lozenge here: ◊  ?)

Bruno







Brent


So, if alpha verifies t (if t is true in alpha), then t means  
simply that there is some world beta accessible (given that t is  
true in all world).


t = truth is possible = I am consistent = there is a reality  
out there = I am connected to a reality =truth is accessible.


Note that this well captured by modal logic, but also by important  
theorem for first order theories. In particular Gödel completeness  
theorem, which can put in this way: a theory is consistent if and  
only the theory has a model.


Gödel completeness (two equivalent versions):
- provable(p) (in a theory) entails p is true in all models of the  
theory.
- consistent(p) (in a theory) entails there is at least one model  
in which p is verified (true).


Bruno





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Re: truth of experience

2014-03-13 Thread meekerdb

On 3/13/2014 11:43 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 13 Mar 2014, at 18:03, meekerdb wrote:


On 3/13/2014 8:33 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 12 Mar 2014, at 21:51, LizR wrote:

On 13 March 2014 04:33, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be mailto:marc...@ulb.ac.be 
wrote:


Hello Terren,

On 12 Mar 2014, at 04:34, Terren Suydam wrote:

Hi Bruno,

Thanks, that helps. Can you expand a bit on t?  Unfortunately I haven't 
had
the time to follow the modal logic threads, so please forgive me but I don't
understand how you could represent reality with t.

Shortly, A most general meaning is that the proposition A is possible.

Modal logician uses the word world in a very general sense, it can mean
situation, state, and actually it can mean anything.

To argue for example that it is possible that  a dog is dangerous, would 
consist
in showing a situation, or a world, or a reality in which a dog is 
dangerous.

so you can read A, as A is possible, or possible(A), with the idea 
that
this means that there is a reality in which A is true.

Reality is not represented by A, it is more the existence of a reality
verifying a proposition.

In particular, t, which is t is possible, where t is the constant true, 
or
1=1 in arithmetic, simply means that there is a reality.


You mean t asserts there is a reality in which the relevant proposition is true 
(e.g. one in which the dog is dangerous) ?


Exactly. (Although possible(dog is dangerous) is more (dog-is-dangerous) than t, 
which is more like possible(dog is dog).


That's Kripke semantics: A is true in alpha IF THERE IS A REALITY beta 
verifying A.

so

t is true in alpha if there is a reality beta verifying t.

Now, Kripke semantics extends classical propositional logic, and t is verified in all 
worlds.


This is a point that confuses me in trying your exercises (which I'm attempting to do 
without reading your exchanges with Liz).  There you refer to a formula being 
respected when it is true in all worlds for all valuations.  But does all 
valuations of a formula A include f when A=p-p?


No, the valuations are defined only on the atomic  p, q, r,  (in modal propositional 
logic).
Then the arbitrary formula get their value by the truth table, and the modal formula get 
their value by the Kripke semantics, that is, the truth values of the boxed an 
diamonded propositions depends on the locally accessible worlds.


Then t and f cannot be treated as atomic propositions, which was my objection to writing 
t. In such a formula, t can only be regarded as shorthand for some tautology.  So t 
doesn't mean There is some reality it means There is some tautology: a proposition that 
is t in virtue of the definition of relations , V, ~, etc.








Are we to assume that t is a formula in all worlds and it's value is always t?


Yes. It is a boolean constant. You can suppress it and replaced it by (p - p), as this 
is true in all words (as this is true in the worlds where p is true, and is true in the 
worlds where p is false).







And then is f also a formula in every world?


You can represent it by (p  ~p), or just ~t, and it is false in every world.

The cul-de-sac worlds get close, as they verify []f.

Fortunately they don't verify []A - A.

f is never met, in any world, but you can met []f, [][]f, [][][]f, ... G* proves ◊[]f, 
◊[][]f,◊[][][]f, ... in the G-worlds.


You say (p  ~p) is false in every world, but f is never met in any world.  That seems 
contradictory.  If p is a proposition in some world, are we not always allowed to form (p 
 ~p), which will have the value f for all valuations of p?






(Do everyone see a lozenge here: ◊  ?)


I see it.

Brent

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Re: truth of experience

2014-03-13 Thread LizR
 (Do everyone see a lozenge here: ◊  ?)

Yes I do!

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Re: truth of experience

2014-03-13 Thread Russell Standish
On Fri, Mar 14, 2014 at 10:10:45AM +1300, LizR wrote:
  (Do everyone see a lozenge here: ◊  ?)
 
 Yes I do!
 

Not me (alas). Although it is visible when typing my response.

Cheers

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Re: truth of experience

2014-03-13 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 13 Mar 2014, at 20:05, meekerdb wrote:


On 3/13/2014 11:43 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 13 Mar 2014, at 18:03, meekerdb wrote:


On 3/13/2014 8:33 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 12 Mar 2014, at 21:51, LizR wrote:


On 13 March 2014 04:33, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:
Hello Terren,

On 12 Mar 2014, at 04:34, Terren Suydam wrote:

Hi Bruno,

Thanks, that helps. Can you expand a bit on t?  Unfortunately  
I haven't had the time to follow the modal logic threads, so  
please forgive me but I don't understand how you could  
represent reality with t.
Shortly, A most general meaning is that the proposition A  
is possible.


Modal logician uses the word world in a very general sense, it  
can mean situation, state, and actually it can mean anything.


To argue for example that it is possible that  a dog is  
dangerous, would consist in showing a situation, or a world, or  
a reality in which a dog is dangerous.


so you can read A, as A is possible, or possible(A), with  
the idea that this means that there is  
a  reality in which A is true.


Reality is not represented by A, it is more the existence  
of a reality verifying a proposition.


In particular, t, which is t is possible, where t is the  
constant true, or 1=1 in arithmetic, simply means that there  
is a reality.


You mean t asserts there is a reality in which the relevant  
proposition is true (e.g. one in which the dog is dangerous) ?


Exactly. (Although possible(dog is dangerous) is more (dog-is- 
dangerous) than t, which is more like possible(dog is dog).


That's Kripke semantics: A is true in alpha IF THERE IS A  
REALITY beta verifying A.


so

t is true in alpha if there is a reality beta verifying t.

Now, Kripke semantics extends classical propositional logic, and  
t is verified in all worlds.


This is a point that confuses me in trying your exercises (which  
I'm attempting to do without reading your exchanges with Liz).   
There you refer to a formula being respected when it is true in  
all worlds for all valuations.  But does all valuations of a  
formula A include f when A=p-p?


No, the valuations are defined only on the atomic  p, q, r,   
(in modal propositional logic).
Then the arbitrary formula get their value by the truth table, and  
the modal formula get their value by the Kripke semantics, that is,  
the truth values of the boxed an diamonded propositions depends  
on the locally accessible worlds.


Then t and f cannot be treated as atomic propositions,


Why? Pi is constant, but still a (real) number. Why could we not have  
constant proposition?




which was my objection to writing t. In such a formula, t can only  
be regarded as shorthand for some tautology.


If you want. Any simple provable proposition would do.


So t doesn't mean There is some reality it means There is some  
tautology: a proposition that is t in virtue of the definition of  
relations , V, ~, etc.


t means, in Kripke semantics, that there is a world in which t is  
true (and as t is true in any world, it does mean that there is a world.


Then when A is the diamond consistency of A, it means that there  
is a model verufying A, by Gödel's completeness theorem.


Bruno












Are we to assume that t is a formula in all worlds and it's  
value is always t?


Yes. It is a boolean constant. You can suppress it and replaced it  
by (p - p), as this is true in all words (as this is true in the  
worlds where p is true, and is true in the worlds where p is false).







And then is f also a formula in every world?


You can represent it by (p  ~p), or just ~t, and it is false in  
every world.


The cul-de-sac worlds get close, as they verify []f.

Fortunately they don't verify []A - A.

f is never met, in any world, but you can met []f, [][]f, [][] 
[]f, ... G* proves ◊[]f, ◊[][]f,◊[][][]f, ... in the G- 
worlds.


You say (p  ~p) is false in every world, but f is never met in any  
world.  That seems contradictory.  If p is a proposition in some  
world, are we not always allowed to form (p  ~p), which will have  
the value f for all valuations of p?






(Do everyone see a lozenge here: ◊  ?)


I see it.

Brent

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Re: truth of experience

2014-03-13 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 13 Mar 2014, at 22:10, LizR wrote:


 (Do everyone see a lozenge here: ◊  ?)

Yes I do!


Nice, I hope everyone see it. Does someone not see a lozenge? Here:  ◊

Do someone not see Gödel's second theorem here: ◊t - ~[]◊t   ?

Bruno





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Re: truth of experience

2014-03-13 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 14 Mar 2014, at 01:49, Russell Standish wrote:


On Fri, Mar 14, 2014 at 10:10:45AM +1300, LizR wrote:

(Do everyone see a lozenge here: ◊  ?)


Yes I do!



Not me (alas).


Damned. I will need to use the more ugly  instead of the cute ◊ !

No problem.

Bruno




Although it is visible when typing my response.

Cheers

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Re: truth of experience

2014-03-13 Thread meekerdb

On 3/13/2014 9:54 PM, Bruno Marchal wrote:
which was my objection to writing t. In such a formula, t can only be regarded as 
shorthand for some tautology.


If you want. Any simple provable proposition would do.


Then f also occurs in every world since (p  ~p) can be formed in every world.  But you 
say we never meet f in any world?


Brent



So t doesn't mean There is some reality it means There is some tautology: a 
proposition that is t in virtue of the definition of relations , V, ~, etc.


t means, in Kripke semantics, that there is a world in which t is true (and as t is 
true in any world, it does mean that there is a world.


Then when A is the diamond consistency of A, it means that there is a model 
verufying A, by Gödel's completeness theorem.


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Re: truth of experience

2014-03-13 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 14 Mar 2014, at 06:08, meekerdb wrote:


On 3/13/2014 9:54 PM, Bruno Marchal wrote:
which was my objection to writing t. In such a formula, t can  
only be regarded as shorthand for some tautology.


If you want. Any simple provable proposition would do.


Then f also occurs in every world since (p  ~p) can be formed in  
every world.  But you say we never meet f in any world?


I meant that f, like (p  ~p), is FALSE in every world. By met it I  
mean met it true.


Bruno





Brent



So t doesn't mean There is some reality it means There is  
some tautology: a proposition that is t in virtue of the  
definition of relations , V, ~, etc.


t means, in Kripke semantics, that there is a world in which t is  
true (and as t is true in any world, it does mean that there is a  
world.


Then when A is the diamond consistency of A, it means that  
there is a model verufying A, by Gödel's completeness theorem.


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Re: truth of experience

2014-03-12 Thread Bruno Marchal
 to the question if we are  
dreaming or not, or more generally, if we are wrong or not.





 Brains that are defective in this manner result in schizophrenia  
and presumably other dissociative pathologies.


OK.





For me it all casts doubt on whether Bp  p is an accurate  
formalization for experience, but I might be missing something.


As I said above, it is a simplest meta definition which capture  
the main thing (the truth of the experience) without needing to  
define it.


Also, for the physical first person *experience*, Bp  p, which is  
only the knower, is not enough, you will need Bp  t  p, which by  
incompleteness has its own logic, quantum like when restricted to  
the sigma_1 truth. You need a reality (t).





Can you make sense of Bp  p for a schizophrenic who hears voices?


If a schizophrenic says that he hears voices, and if he hears voice  
(mentally, virtually, arithmetically, brain-biologically, ...), then  
he knows he hears voice.


An insane guy who says that he is Napoleon does not know that he is  
napoleon, but he believes it only. He still might know that he  
believes being Napoleon, and be only ignorant or denying that this  
is false.







How about your own salvia experiences?


It is very hard to describe, even more to interpret. And I am biased.

It is indeed:  [](... what-the-f.) and ... what the f.  Most  
plausibly.


It is like remembering forgotten qualia since eons.

It might confirms the idea that brains, machines, words, theories  
filter consciousness only.

Consciousness would be a close sister of (arithmetical) truth.

Salvia might open the appetite for platonism, but of course it is  
also a question of taste.



Bruno








T

On Mon, Mar 10, 2014 at 3:26 PM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be  
wrote:


On 10 Mar 2014, at 16:28, Terren Suydam wrote:



Question for you Bruno:.

You say (with help from Theaetetus) that 1p experience is given by  
Bp  p. Yet, our experience is often deluded, as in optical  
illusions, or in various kinds of emotional  psychological  
denial. Can we ever really say that our knowledge, even 1p  
experience, refers to anything True?


In public?  No.

In private?  Yes.

I would say.

Then in the frame of theories about such 1p things, like  
consciousness, we can decide to agree on some property of the  
notion. Then, consciousness-here-and-now might be a candidate for  
a possible true reference, if you agree consciousness-here-and-now  
is undoubtable or incorrigible.


Then we can approximate many sort of truth, by the very plausible,  
the probable, the relatively expectable, etc.


If someone complains, is the pain real or fake? Eventually it is a  
question for a judge.


The truth is what no machine can really grasp the whole truth, but  
all machines can know very well some aspect of it, I think, but  
very few in justifiable modes.



Bruno



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Re: truth of experience

2014-03-12 Thread meekerdb

On 3/12/2014 8:33 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:

Hello Terren,


On 12 Mar 2014, at 04:34, Terren Suydam wrote:


Hi Bruno,

Thanks, that helps. Can you expand a bit on t?  Unfortunately I haven't had the time 
to follow the modal logic threads, so please forgive me but I don't understand how you 
could represent reality with t.



Shortly, A most general meaning is that the proposition A is possible.

Modal logician uses the word world in a very general sense, it can mean situation, 
state, and actually it can mean anything.


To argue for example that it is possible that  a dog is dangerous, would consist in 
showing a situation, or a world, or a reality in which a dog is dangerous.


so you can read A, as A is possible, or possible(A), with the idea that this means 
that there is a reality in which A is true.


Reality is not represented by A, it is more the existence of a reality verifying a 
proposition.


In particular, t, which is t is possible, where t is the constant true, or 1=1 in 
arithmetic, simply means that there is a reality.


t is possible looks like a category error to me.   A is possible means A refers to the 
state of some world.  I don't see that t or 1=1 refers to some world, they are just 
tautologies, artifacts of language.





This, Aristotle and Leibniz understood, but Kripke enriched the notion of possibility 
by making the notion of possibility relative to the world you actually are.


Somehow, for the machine talking in first predicate logic, like PA and ZF, more can be 
said, once we interpret the modal box by the Gödelian beweisbar('p'), which can be 
translated in arithmetic.


First order theories have a nice metamathematical property, discovered by Gödel (in his 
PhD thesis), and know as completeness, which (here) means that provability is equivalent 
with truth in all models, where models are mathematical structure which can verify or 
not, but in a well defined mathematical sense, a formula of classical first order 
logical theories.

For example PA proves some sentences A, if and only if, A is true in all models 
of PA.

If []A is provability (beweisbar('A')), the dual A is consistency 
(~beweisbar('~A').

A = ~[]~A.

~A  is equivalent with  A - f   (as you can verify by doing the truth table)

 A = ~[]~A =  ~([](A - f))

Saying that you cannot prove a contradiction (f),  from A, means that A is 
consistent.

So t means, for PA, with the arithmetical translation ~beweisbar('~t'), 
= ~beweisbar('f'), that PA is consistent, and by Gödel *_completeness_* theorem, this 
means that there is a mathematical structure (model) verifying 1=1.


So, although ~beweisbar('~t'), is an arithmetical proposition having some meaning in 
term of syntactical object (proofs) existence, it is also a way for PA, or Löbian 
entities, to refer, implicitly at first, to the existence of a reality.


But why should the failure to prove f imply anything about reality?

Brent


Of course, when asked about t, the sound machines stay mute (Gödel's *_first 
incompleteness_* theorem), and eventually, the Löbian one, like PA and ZF,  explains why 
they stay mute, by asserting

t - ~[]t (Gödel's *_second_* *_incompleteness_*).

This is capital, as it means that []p, although it implies p, that implication cannot 
be proved by the machine, so that to a get a probability on the relative consistent 
extension, the less you can ask, is p, and by incompleteness, although both []p and 
[]p  p, will prove the same arithmetical propositions, they will obey different logics.


More on this later. When you grasp the link between modal logic and Gödel, you can see 
that modal logic can save a lot of work. Modal logic does not add anything to the 
arithmetical reality, nor even to self-reference, but it provides a jet to fly above the 
arithmetical abysses, even discover them, including their different panorama, when 
filtered by local universal machines/numbers. As there are also modal logics capable of 
representing quantum logic(s), modal logics can help to compare the way nature selects 
the observable-possibilities, and the computable, or sigma_1 arithmetical selection 
enforced, I think, by computationalism.


Bruno


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Re: truth of experience

2014-03-12 Thread LizR
On 13 March 2014 04:33, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

 Hello Terren,

 On 12 Mar 2014, at 04:34, Terren Suydam wrote:

 Hi Bruno,

 Thanks, that helps. Can you expand a bit on t?  Unfortunately I haven't
 had the time to follow the modal logic threads, so please forgive me but I
 don't understand how you could represent reality with t.

 Shortly, A most general meaning is that the proposition A is
 possible.

 Modal logician uses the word world in a very general sense, it can mean
 situation, state, and actually it can mean anything.

 To argue for example that it is possible that  a dog is dangerous, would
 consist in showing a situation, or a world, or a reality in which a dog is
 dangerous.

 so you can read A, as A is possible, or possible(A), with the idea
 that this means that there is a reality in which A is true.

 Reality is not represented by A, it is more the existence of a
 reality verifying a proposition.

 In particular, t, which is t is possible, where t is the constant
 true, or 1=1 in arithmetic, simply means that there is a reality.


You mean t asserts there is a reality in which the relevant proposition
is true (e.g. one in which the dog is dangerous) ?

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truth of experience

2014-03-11 Thread Terren Suydam
Hi Bruno,

Sure, consciousness here-and-now is undoubtable. But the p refers to the
contents of consciousness, which is not undoubtable in many cases. I am in
pain cannot be doubted when one is feeling it, but other felt sensations
can be doubted, e.g. see
http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC2956899/

Such illusions of experience can even be helpful, as in Ramachandran's
Mirror Box therapy for phantom limb sufferers, see
http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC3468806/

Illusions of experience are evidence that what we experience is of our
brains' constructions, like a waking dream, guided in healthy brains by the
patterns of information streaming from our sense organs.  Brains that are
defective in this manner result in schizophrenia and presumably other
dissociative pathologies.

For me it all casts doubt on whether Bp  p is an accurate formalization
for experience, but I might be missing something. Can you make sense of Bp
 p for a schizophrenic who hears voices?  How about your own salvia
experiences?

T

On Mon, Mar 10, 2014 at 3:26 PM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:


 On 10 Mar 2014, at 16:28, Terren Suydam wrote:


 Question for you Bruno:.

 You say (with help from Theaetetus) that 1p experience is given by Bp 
 p. Yet, our experience is often deluded, as in optical illusions, or in
 various kinds of emotional  psychological denial. Can we ever really say
 that our knowledge, even 1p experience, refers to anything True?


 In public?  No.

 In private?  Yes.

 I would say.

 Then in the frame of theories about such 1p things, like consciousness, we
 can decide to agree on some property of the notion. Then,
 consciousness-here-and-now might be a candidate for a possible true
 reference, if you agree consciousness-here-and-now is undoubtable or
 incorrigible.

 Then we can approximate many sort of truth, by the very plausible, the
 probable, the relatively expectable, etc.

 If someone complains, is the pain real or fake? Eventually it is a
 question for a judge.

 The truth is what no machine can really grasp the whole truth, but all
 machines can know very well some aspect of it, I think, but very few in
 justifiable modes.


 Bruno




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Re: truth of experience

2014-03-11 Thread Craig Weinberg


On Tuesday, March 11, 2014 12:10:31 PM UTC-4, Terren Suydam wrote:


 Hi Bruno,

 Sure, consciousness here-and-now is undoubtable. But the p refers to the 
 contents of consciousness, which is not undoubtable in many cases. I am in 
 pain cannot be doubted when one is feeling it, but other felt sensations 
 can be doubted, e.g. see 
 http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC2956899/

 Such illusions of experience can even be helpful, as in Ramachandran's 
 Mirror Box therapy for phantom limb sufferers, see 
 http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC3468806/

 Illusions of experience are evidence that what we experience is of our 
 brains' constructions,


Illusions are only evidence that experience has multiple layers of 
reference and expectation, and the brain conditions affect those layers. 
That doesn't mean that the brain is constructing anything though (except 
for neurotransmitters). If what we experience is a construction, then that 
means the entire universe could be a construction, including the 
expectation of a universe which is either 'illusory' or not.
 

 like a waking dream, guided in healthy brains by the patterns of 
 information streaming from our sense organs.  Brains that are defective in 
 this manner result in schizophrenia and presumably other dissociative 
 pathologies.

 For me it all casts doubt on whether Bp  p is an accurate formalization 
 for experience, but I might be missing something. Can you make sense of Bp 
  p for a schizophrenic who hears voices?  How about your own salvia 
 experiences?


As far as I can tell, Bp  p is a fragile notion that has been generalized 
from from formalities within communication and has very little to do with 
experience. It is a radically normative and narrow consideration of only 
one aspect of consciousness.

Craig


 T

 On Mon, Mar 10, 2014 at 3:26 PM, Bruno Marchal mar...@ulb.ac.bejavascript:
  wrote:


 On 10 Mar 2014, at 16:28, Terren Suydam wrote:


 Question for you Bruno:.

 You say (with help from Theaetetus) that 1p experience is given by Bp  
 p. Yet, our experience is often deluded, as in optical illusions, or in 
 various kinds of emotional  psychological denial. Can we ever really say 
 that our knowledge, even 1p experience, refers to anything True?


 In public?  No.

 In private?  Yes.

 I would say.

 Then in the frame of theories about such 1p things, like consciousness, 
 we can decide to agree on some property of the notion. Then, 
 consciousness-here-and-now might be a candidate for a possible true 
 reference, if you agree consciousness-here-and-now is undoubtable or 
 incorrigible.

 Then we can approximate many sort of truth, by the very plausible, the 
 probable, the relatively expectable, etc.

 If someone complains, is the pain real or fake? Eventually it is a 
 question for a judge.

 The truth is what no machine can really grasp the whole truth, but all 
 machines can know very well some aspect of it, I think, but very few in 
 justifiable modes.


 Bruno




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Re: truth of experience

2014-03-11 Thread Bruno Marchal

Hi Terran,


On 11 Mar 2014, at 17:10, Terren Suydam wrote:



Hi Bruno,

Sure, consciousness here-and-now is undoubtable. But the p refers  
to the contents of consciousness, which is not undoubtable in many  
cases. I am in pain cannot be doubted when one is feeling it, but  
other felt sensations can be doubted, e.g. see http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC2956899/


Such illusions of experience can even be helpful, as in  
Ramachandran's Mirror Box therapy for phantom limb sufferers, see http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC3468806/


Illusions of experience are evidence that what we experience is of  
our brains' constructions, like a waking dream, guided in healthy  
brains by the patterns of information streaming from our sense organs.


Exactly: like a walking dream. That's the root of the Bp  p idea, in  
the Theaetetus. To do the math I concentrate to rich (Löbian)  
machine for the B, but the idea of defining knowledge by true belief  
is an act of modesty with respect to the question if we are dreaming  
or not, or more generally, if we are wrong or not.





 Brains that are defective in this manner result in schizophrenia  
and presumably other dissociative pathologies.


OK.





For me it all casts doubt on whether Bp  p is an accurate  
formalization for experience, but I might be missing something.


As I said above, it is a simplest meta definition which capture the  
main thing (the truth of the experience) without needing to define it.


Also, for the physical first person *experience*, Bp  p, which is  
only the knower, is not enough, you will need Bp  t  p, which by  
incompleteness has its own logic, quantum like when restricted to the  
sigma_1 truth. You need a reality (t).





Can you make sense of Bp  p for a schizophrenic who hears voices?


If a schizophrenic says that he hears voices, and if he hears voice  
(mentally, virtually, arithmetically, brain-biologically, ...), then  
he knows he hears voice.


An insane guy who says that he is Napoleon does not know that he is  
napoleon, but he believes it only. He still might know that he  
believes being Napoleon, and be only ignorant or denying that this is  
false.







How about your own salvia experiences?


It is very hard to describe, even more to interpret. And I am biased.

It is indeed:  [](... what-the-f.) and ... what the f.  Most plausibly.

It is like remembering forgotten qualia since eons.

It might confirms the idea that brains, machines, words, theories  
filter consciousness only.

Consciousness would be a close sister of (arithmetical) truth.

Salvia might open the appetite for platonism, but of course it is also  
a question of taste.



Bruno








T

On Mon, Mar 10, 2014 at 3:26 PM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be  
wrote:


On 10 Mar 2014, at 16:28, Terren Suydam wrote:



Question for you Bruno:.

You say (with help from Theaetetus) that 1p experience is given by  
Bp  p. Yet, our experience is often deluded, as in optical  
illusions, or in various kinds of emotional  psychological denial.  
Can we ever really say that our knowledge, even 1p experience,  
refers to anything True?


In public?  No.

In private?  Yes.

I would say.

Then in the frame of theories about such 1p things, like  
consciousness, we can decide to agree on some property of the  
notion. Then, consciousness-here-and-now might be a candidate for  
a possible true reference, if you agree consciousness-here-and-now  
is undoubtable or incorrigible.


Then we can approximate many sort of truth, by the very plausible,  
the probable, the relatively expectable, etc.


If someone complains, is the pain real or fake? Eventually it is a  
question for a judge.


The truth is what no machine can really grasp the whole truth, but  
all machines can know very well some aspect of it, I think, but very  
few in justifiable modes.



Bruno



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Re: truth of experience

2014-03-11 Thread Terren Suydam
Hi Bruno,

Thanks, that helps. Can you expand a bit on t?  Unfortunately I haven't
had the time to follow the modal logic threads, so please forgive me but I
don't understand how you could represent reality with t.

Thanks,
T


On Tue, Mar 11, 2014 at 2:18 PM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

 Hi Terran,


 On 11 Mar 2014, at 17:10, Terren Suydam wrote:


 Hi Bruno,

 Sure, consciousness here-and-now is undoubtable. But the p refers to the
 contents of consciousness, which is not undoubtable in many cases. I am in
 pain cannot be doubted when one is feeling it, but other felt sensations
 can be doubted, e.g. see
 http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC2956899/

 Such illusions of experience can even be helpful, as in Ramachandran's
 Mirror Box therapy for phantom limb sufferers, see
 http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC3468806/

 Illusions of experience are evidence that what we experience is of our
 brains' constructions, like a waking dream, guided in healthy brains by the
 patterns of information streaming from our sense organs.


 Exactly: like a walking dream. That's the root of the Bp  p idea, in the
 Theaetetus. To do the math I concentrate to rich (Löbian) machine for the
 B, but the idea of defining knowledge by true belief is an act of modesty
 with respect to the question if we are dreaming or not, or more generally,
 if we are wrong or not.




  Brains that are defective in this manner result in schizophrenia and
 presumably other dissociative pathologies.


 OK.




 For me it all casts doubt on whether Bp  p is an accurate formalization
 for experience, but I might be missing something.


 As I said above, it is a simplest meta definition which capture the
 main thing (the truth of the experience) without needing to define it.

 Also, for the physical first person *experience*, Bp  p, which is only
 the knower, is not enough, you will need Bp  t  p, which by
 incompleteness has its own logic, quantum like when restricted to the
 sigma_1 truth. You need a reality (t).



 Can you make sense of Bp  p for a schizophrenic who hears voices?


 If a schizophrenic says that he hears voices, and if he hears voice
 (mentally, virtually, arithmetically, brain-biologically, ...), then he
 knows he hears voice.

 An insane guy who says that he is Napoleon does not know that he is
 napoleon, but he believes it only. He still might know that he believes
 being Napoleon, and be only ignorant or denying that this is false.





 How about your own salvia experiences?


 It is very hard to describe, even more to interpret. And I am biased.

 It is indeed:  [](... what-the-f.) and ... what the f.  Most plausibly.

 It is like remembering forgotten qualia since eons.

 It might confirms the idea that brains, machines, words, theories filter
 consciousness only.
 Consciousness would be a close sister of (arithmetical) truth.

 Salvia might open the appetite for platonism, but of course it is also a
 question of taste.


 Bruno







 T

 On Mon, Mar 10, 2014 at 3:26 PM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:


 On 10 Mar 2014, at 16:28, Terren Suydam wrote:


 Question for you Bruno:.

 You say (with help from Theaetetus) that 1p experience is given by Bp 
 p. Yet, our experience is often deluded, as in optical illusions, or in
 various kinds of emotional  psychological denial. Can we ever really say
 that our knowledge, even 1p experience, refers to anything True?


 In public?  No.

 In private?  Yes.

 I would say.

 Then in the frame of theories about such 1p things, like consciousness,
 we can decide to agree on some property of the notion. Then,
 consciousness-here-and-now might be a candidate for a possible true
 reference, if you agree consciousness-here-and-now is undoubtable or
 incorrigible.

 Then we can approximate many sort of truth, by the very plausible, the
 probable, the relatively expectable, etc.

 If someone complains, is the pain real or fake? Eventually it is a
 question for a judge.

 The truth is what no machine can really grasp the whole truth, but all
 machines can know very well some aspect of it, I think, but very few in
 justifiable modes.


 Bruno



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