Re: Spinoza, Leibniz and Descartes on the mind-body problem

2013-11-18 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 18 Nov 2013, at 15:36, Telmo Menezes wrote:

On Mon, Nov 18, 2013 at 3:31 PM, Bruno Marchal   
wrote:


On 18 Nov 2013, at 14:41, Roger Clough wrote:

Spinoza, Leibniz and Descartes are completely different on the  
relationship

between mind and matter See

http://plato.stanford.edu/entries/substance/#DesSpiLei

Spinoza was a monist, who believed that mind and matter were one.


Are you sure? It seems to me that Spinoza defended what is called  
today
"neutral monism": the idea that both matter and mind (which are  
taken as

obviously very different) are coming from one different thing.
Computationalism is neutral monist in that sense, where the  
"different

thing" is the arithmetical reality.



Descartes believed that mind and matter are totally different


OK. But Descartes, imo, became aware of the depth of the rabbit  
hole this
entails. It is hard to say, because Descartes was limited in his  
prose by

the authoritarianism of his epoch. I read him in between the lines.


Interesting. I always assumed that Descartes was oblivious to the
problems with dualism. But I really like his idea of starting with the
cogito.


I appreciate very much Descartes, mainly for his meditations (with the  
dream argument, and the cogito), and his unfinished text "in the  
search of truth".
His dualism is coherent with his mechanism, except that he refers to  
God (but then it is close to Plotinus' theory of matter), instead of  
arithmetical truth (but of course he lacks Gödel's discovery). I don't  
think Descartes ever took the idea of a substance-dualism seriously.  
He might not be a dulaist in that sense.
Of course the Aristotelians jumps on that "cartesian" dualist wagon,  
but when you read Descartes, you don't see evidence for such a  
dualism. With Plotinus (that Descartes seems to ignore), Descartes is  
close to computationalism both on mind and matter. He could have  
studied more his predecessors, if only to better argue. It is normal.  
Those who have genuine personal deep question always try to answer  
them by themselves (and they reinvent the wheel, here and there).


Bruno




http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: Spinoza, Leibniz and Descartes on the mind-body problem

2013-11-18 Thread Telmo Menezes
On Mon, Nov 18, 2013 at 3:31 PM, Bruno Marchal  wrote:
>
> On 18 Nov 2013, at 14:41, Roger Clough wrote:
>
> Spinoza, Leibniz and Descartes are completely different on the relationship
> between mind and matter See
>
> http://plato.stanford.edu/entries/substance/#DesSpiLei
>
> Spinoza was a monist, who believed that mind and matter were one.
>
>
> Are you sure? It seems to me that Spinoza defended what is called today
> "neutral monism": the idea that both matter and mind (which are taken as
> obviously very different) are coming from one different thing.
> Computationalism is neutral monist in that sense, where the "different
> thing" is the arithmetical reality.
>
>
>
> Descartes believed that mind and matter are totally different
>
>
> OK. But Descartes, imo, became aware of the depth of the rabbit hole this
> entails. It is hard to say, because Descartes was limited in his prose by
> the authoritarianism of his epoch. I read him in between the lines.

Interesting. I always assumed that Descartes was oblivious to the
problems with dualism. But I really like his idea of starting with the
cogito.

>
> Leibniz beleived that mind was a monad or mental aspect of matter.
>
>
> And this makes him still a materialist, by which I mean a believer in some
> ontologically independent substance.
>
>
>
> Bertrand Ruseell said that there are two forms of knowing:
>
> a) Knowing scientifically or objectively (knowing by description)
> Example: you know who Obama is from the newspapers.
>
> b) Knowing by acquaintance or experience (knowing subjectively)
> Example: you know who Obama is because you have met him.
>
>
> Yes, and such a difference is made very clear in the 1p/3p distinction that
> we have to take into account to understand that materialism is eventually
> not compatible with mechanism.
> It can be translated in arithmetic, and Bertrand Russell's distinction is
> well captured by the difference between Bp & p and Bp. Note that this would
> not work without the incompleteness result.
>
> Bruno
>
>
> http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/
>
>
>
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> You received this message because you are subscribed to the Google Groups
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Re: Spinoza, Leibniz and Descartes on the mind-body problem

2013-11-18 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 18 Nov 2013, at 14:41, Roger Clough wrote:

Spinoza, Leibniz and Descartes are completely different on the  
relationship

between mind and matter See

http://plato.stanford.edu/entries/substance/#DesSpiLei

Spinoza was a monist, who believed that mind and matter were one.


Are you sure? It seems to me that Spinoza defended what is called  
today "neutral monism": the idea that both matter and mind (which are  
taken as obviously very different) are coming from one different  
thing. Computationalism is neutral monist in that sense, where the  
"different thing" is the arithmetical reality.





Descartes believed that mind and matter are totally different


OK. But Descartes, imo, became aware of the depth of the rabbit hole  
this entails. It is hard to say, because Descartes was limited in his  
prose by the authoritarianism of his epoch. I read him in between the  
lines.




Leibniz beleived that mind was a monad or mental aspect of matter.


And this makes him still a materialist, by which I mean a believer in  
some ontologically independent substance.





Bertrand Ruseell said that there are two forms of knowing:

a) Knowing scientifically or objectively (knowing by description)
Example: you know who Obama is from the newspapers.

b) Knowing by acquaintance or experience (knowing subjectively)
Example: you know who Obama is because you have met him.


Yes, and such a difference is made very clear in the 1p/3p distinction  
that we have to take into account to understand that materialism is  
eventually not compatible with mechanism.
It can be translated in arithmetic, and Bertrand Russell's distinction  
is well captured by the difference between Bp & p and Bp. Note that  
this would not work without the incompleteness result.


Bruno


http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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