Re: Semantic vs logical truth

2012-12-04 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 03 Dec 2012, at 21:55, meekerdb wrote:


On 12/3/2012 10:03 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:



On 03 Dec 2012, at 00:04, meekerdb wrote:


On 12/2/2012 7:27 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


The 1p truth of the machine is not coded in the machine. Some  
actual machines knows already that, and can justified that If  
there are machine (and from outside we can know this to correct)  
then the 1p-truth is not codable.  The 1p truth are more related  
to the relation between belief and reality (not necessarily  
physical reality, except for observation and sensation).


Even the simple, and apparently formal Bp & p is NOT codable.
Most truth about machine, including some that they can know, are  
not codable.

Many things true about us is not codable either.


Let me see if I understand that.  I think you are saying that p,  
i.e. that "p" describes a fact about the world, a meta-level above  
the coding of a machine.


No, p is for some statement at the base level, like 1+1 = 2.


Yes, I understand that.  I didn't express myself clearly.  p is a 0- 
level statement.  "That p" (i.e. that p is true, that "p" 
describes a fact) is a 1-level statement.


p is "that p". When the machine asserts 1+1=2, she meant that it is  
the case that "1+1=2", independently of the truth or falsity of the  
assertion. But we mimit ourself to correct machine, so in this case  
"p" and "p is true" are equivalent, and so we can model True("p"),  
which is not expressible in the language of the machine, by  
"p" (asserted by the machine).











That the Mars Rover believes it is south of it's landing point is  
implicit in its state and might be inferred from its behavior, but  
there is no part of the state corresponding to "I *believe* I am  
south of my landing point."


Then Mars Rover is not Löbian. But I am not even sure that Mars  
Rover is Turing universal, or that it exploits its Turing  
universality.


Well not the current Mars Rover, but a Mars Rover could be, it's  
just a matter of program.  So the Rover could not only encode p,  
also encode that it believed p.


OK.







But PA and ZF can represent "I believe". So we can study the logic  
of a new 'knowledge" operator defined (at the meta level, for each  
arithmetical proposition) by Bp & p. For example if p is "1+1=2",  
it is


Believe"("1+1=2") & 1+1 = 2.


I don't understand the significance of the unpaired quote marks?


read:

Believe("1+1=2") & 1+1 = 2

(Sorry).







We cannot define such operator in arithmetic. We would need  
something like Believe"("1+1=2") & True("1+1 = 2"), but True, in  
general cannot defined in arithmetic. Yet, we can metadefine it and  
study its logic, which obeys a soprt of temporal intuionistic logic  
(interpreting the S4Grz logic obtained).






One could include such second-level states (which one might want  
to communicate to Pasadena) but then that state would be just  
another first-level state. Right?


Not sure I see what you mean. The meta, available by the machine is  
in the "I believe". It is the 3-I. The presentation of myself to  
myself. The 1-I will be the non definable operator above. We  
connect the believer to the truth. It is easy to do for the sound  
correct machine.


What I mean is that if you programmed the Rover to be Lobian and it  
not only thought p but also though Bp, both of those would be just  
be similar physical states within its computer memory - their  
hierarchical relation would just be that encoded in the Lobian  
program.


?

"s(0) + s(0) = s(s(0))" is far more shorter than the coding of  
"Beweisbar ("s(0) + s(0) = s(s(0))")"





So a physical error in the computer could change Bp to ~Bp, yet this  
would have no effect on the performance of the Rover except in  
reporting what it believed.


To survive, such self-referential falsity will not help.
To do "philosophy of mind", such false reports can be disastrous.

But for the correct machine, by definition we don't have that problem.  
Bp & p is strictly equivalent with Bp. Now the correct machine can  
never prove ("for all p") such an equivalence. In fact by Löb theorem,  
if ever the machine proves Bp -> p, she will always been able to prove  
p.


G* proves ((Bp & p) <-> Bp)
G does not prove that. Indeed the machine can't prove Bf -> f.

Bruno

http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: Semantic vs logical truth

2012-12-03 Thread meekerdb

On 12/3/2012 10:03 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 03 Dec 2012, at 00:04, meekerdb wrote:


On 12/2/2012 7:27 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:
The 1p truth of the machine is not coded in the machine. Some actual machines knows 
already that, and can justified that If there are machine (and from outside we can 
know this to correct) then the 1p-truth is not codable.  The 1p truth are more related 
to the relation between belief and reality (not necessarily physical reality, except 
for observation and sensation).


Even the simple, and apparently formal Bp & p is NOT codable.
Most truth about machine, including some that they can know, are not codable.
Many things true about us is not codable either.


Let me see if I understand that.  I think you are saying that p, i.e. that "p" 
describes a fact about the world, a meta-level above the coding of a machine.


No, p is for some statement at the base level, like 1+1 = 2.


Yes, I understand that.  I didn't express myself clearly.  p is a 0-level statement.  
"That p" (i.e. that p is true, that "p" describes a fact) is a 1-level statement.








That the Mars Rover believes it is south of it's landing point is implicit in its state 
and might be inferred from its behavior, but there is no part of the state 
corresponding to "I *believe* I am south of my landing point."


Then Mars Rover is not Löbian. But I am not even sure that Mars Rover is Turing 
universal, or that it exploits its Turing universality.


Well not the current Mars Rover, but a Mars Rover could be, it's just a matter of 
program.  So the Rover could not only encode p, also encode that it believed p.




But PA and ZF can represent "I believe". So we can study the logic of a new 'knowledge" 
operator defined (at the meta level, for each arithmetical proposition) by Bp & p. For 
example if p is "1+1=2", it is


Believe"("1+1=2") & 1+1 = 2.


I don't understand the significance of the unpaired quote marks?



We cannot define such operator in arithmetic. We would need something 
like Believe"("1+1=2") & True("1+1 = 2"), but True, in general cannot defined in 
arithmetic. Yet, we can metadefine it and study its logic, which obeys a soprt of 
temporal intuionistic logic (interpreting the S4Grz logic obtained).






One could include such second-level states (which one might want to communicate to 
Pasadena) but then that state would be just another first-level state. Right?


Not sure I see what you mean. The meta, available by the machine is in the "I believe". 
It is the 3-I. The presentation of myself to myself. The 1-I will be the non definable 
operator above. We connect the believer to the truth. It is easy to do for the sound 
correct machine.


What I mean is that if you programmed the Rover to be Lobian and it not only thought p but 
also though Bp, both of those would be just be similar physical states within its computer 
memory - their hierarchical relation would just be that encoded in the Lobian program.  So 
a physical error in the computer could change Bp to ~Bp, yet this would have no effect on 
the performance of the Rover except in reporting what it believed.


Brent

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Re: Semantic vs logical truth

2012-12-03 Thread meekerdb

On 12/3/2012 4:42 AM, Roger Clough wrote:

Hi meekerdb
1p is not a fiction. Your 1p is what is reading this page.


Where did I refer to 1p?  Where did I call anything a 'fiction'  Are you replying to the 
voices in your head?  Don't put words in my mouth.


Brent


[Roger Clough], [rclo...@verizon.net] <mailto:rclo...@verizon.net]>
12/3/2012
"Forever is a long time, especially near the end." -Woody Allen

- Receiving the following content -
*From:* meekerdb <mailto:meeke...@verizon.net>
*Receiver:* everything-list <mailto:everything-list@googlegroups.com>
*Time:* 2012-12-02, 18:04:38
    *Subject:* Re: Semantic vs logical truth

On 12/2/2012 7:27 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:

The 1p truth of the machine is not coded in the machine. Some actual 
machines knows
already that, and can justified that If there are machine (and from outside 
we can
know this to correct) then the 1p-truth is not codable.  The 1p truth are 
more
related to the relation between belief and reality (not necessarily physical
reality, except for observation and sensation).

Even the simple, and apparently formal Bp & p is NOT codable.
Most truth about machine, including some that they can know, are not 
codable.
Many things true about us is not codable either.


Let me see if I understand that.  I think you are saying that p, i.e. that 
"p"
describes a fact about the world, a meta-level above the coding of a 
machine.  That
the Mars Rover believes it is south of it's landing point is implicit in 
its state
and might be inferred from its behavior, but there is no part of the state
corresponding to "I *believe* I am south of my landing point."  One could 
include
such second-level states (which one might want to communicate to Pasadena) 
but then
that state would be just another first-level state. Right?

Brent

No virus found in this message.
Checked by AVG - www.avg.com <http://www.avg.com>
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Re: Semantic vs logical truth

2012-12-03 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 03 Dec 2012, at 00:04, meekerdb wrote:


On 12/2/2012 7:27 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


The 1p truth of the machine is not coded in the machine. Some  
actual machines knows already that, and can justified that If there  
are machine (and from outside we can know this to correct) then the  
1p-truth is not codable.  The 1p truth are more related to the  
relation between belief and reality (not necessarily physical  
reality, except for observation and sensation).


Even the simple, and apparently formal Bp & p is NOT codable.
Most truth about machine, including some that they can know, are  
not codable.

Many things true about us is not codable either.


Let me see if I understand that.  I think you are saying that p,  
i.e. that "p" describes a fact about the world, a meta-level above  
the coding of a machine.


No, p is for some statement at the base level, like 1+1 = 2.





That the Mars Rover believes it is south of it's landing point is  
implicit in its state and might be inferred from its behavior, but  
there is no part of the state corresponding to "I *believe* I am  
south of my landing point."


Then Mars Rover is not Löbian. But I am not even sure that Mars Rover  
is Turing universal, or that it exploits its Turing universality.


But PA and ZF can represent "I believe". So we can study the logic of  
a new 'knowledge" operator defined (at the meta level, for each  
arithmetical proposition) by Bp & p. For example if p is "1+1=2", it is


Believe"("1+1=2") & 1+1 = 2.

We cannot define such operator in arithmetic. We would need something  
like Believe"("1+1=2") & True("1+1 = 2"), but True, in general cannot  
defined in arithmetic. Yet, we can metadefine it and study its logic,  
which obeys a soprt of temporal intuionistic logic (interpreting the  
S4Grz logic obtained).






One could include such second-level states (which one might want to  
communicate to Pasadena) but then that state would be just another  
first-level state. Right?


Not sure I see what you mean. The meta, available by the machine is in  
the "I believe". It is the 3-I. The presentation of myself to myself.  
The 1-I will be the non definable operator above. We connect the  
believer to the truth. It is easy to do for the sound correct machine.


Bruno






Brent

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Re: Re: Semantic vs logical truth

2012-12-03 Thread Roger Clough
Hi meekerdb 

1p is not a fiction. Your 1p is what is reading this page.


[Roger Clough], [rclo...@verizon.net]
12/3/2012 
"Forever is a long time, especially near the end." -Woody Allen

- Receiving the following content - 
From: meekerdb 
Receiver: everything-list 
Time: 2012-12-02, 18:04:38
Subject: Re: Semantic vs logical truth


On 12/2/2012 7:27 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote: 
The 1p truth of the machine is not coded in the machine. Some actual machines 
knows already that, and can justified that If there are machine (and from 
outside we can know this to correct) then the 1p-truth is not codable.  The 1p 
truth are more related to the relation between belief and reality (not 
necessarily physical reality, except for observation and sensation).


Even the simple, and apparently formal Bp & p is NOT codable. 
Most truth about machine, including some that they can know, are not codable. 
Many things true about us is not codable either.

Let me see if I understand that.  I think you are saying that p, i.e. that "p" 
describes a fact about the world, a meta-level above the coding of a machine.  
That the Mars Rover believes it is south of it's landing point is implicit in 
its state and might be inferred from its behavior, but there is no part of the 
state corresponding to "I *believe* I am south of my landing point."  One could 
include such second-level states (which one might want to communicate to 
Pasadena) but then that state would be just another first-level state. Right?

Brent

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Re: Re: Semantic vs logical truth

2012-12-03 Thread Roger Clough
Hi Richard Ruquist 

You still think everything's objective. But nobody know how to code 
1p because it's subjective.  3p is objective, 1p is subjective.


[Roger Clough], [rclo...@verizon.net]
12/3/2012 
"Forever is a long time, especially near the end." -Woody Allen

- Receiving the following content - 
From: Richard Ruquist 
Receiver: everything-list 
Time: 2012-12-02, 08:16:03
Subject: Re: Semantic vs logical truth


Roger,
Computers will do 1p truth when their results become emergent
in which case they will be doing the coding as well so to speak.
Richard

On Sun, Dec 2, 2012 at 7:11 AM, Roger Clough  wrote:
> Hi Bruno Marchal
>
> Semantic truth I think is 1p (personal, private) truth,
> which mnakes it contingent, while logical truth is necessary
> as well as public or 3p truth. I think
> comnputers have problems with 1p truth because
> for one thing the coding is done by someone outside.
>
>
> [Roger Clough], [rclo...@verizon.net]
> 12/2/2012
> "Forever is a long time, especially near the end." -Woody Allen
>
>
> - Receiving the following content -
> From: Bruno Marchal
> Receiver: everything-list
> Time: 2012-12-02, 04:07:39
> Subject: Re: Numbers in the Platonic Realm
>
>
> On 30 Nov 2012, at 21:28, meekerdb wrote:
>
> On 11/30/2012 10:02 AM, Roger Clough wrote:
>
> And a transcendent truth could be arithmetic truth or
> the truth of necessary logic.
>
>
> True in logic and formal mathematics is just marker "T" that is preserved by
> the rules of inference.
>
>
> This makes no sense. You confuse the propositional constant T, with the
> semantical notion of truth. The first is expressible/definable formally
> (indeed by T, or by "0 = 0" in arithmetic), the second is not (Tarski
> theorem). When we say that truth is preserved by the rules of inference, we
> are concerned with the second notion.
>
>
>
> In applications it is interpreted as if it were the correspondence meaning
> of 'true'.
>
>
> Like in arithmetic. Truth of "ExP(x)" means that it exists a n such that
> P(n), at the "metalevel", which is the bare level in logic (that explains
> many confusion).
>
>
>
>
> But like all applications of mathematics, it may be only approximate.
>
>
> Yes, but for arithmetic it is pretty clear, as we share our intuition on the
> so-called standard finite numbers.
>
> Bruno
>
>
> http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/
>
>
>
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Re: Semantic vs logical truth

2012-12-02 Thread meekerdb

On 12/2/2012 7:27 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:
The 1p truth of the machine is not coded in the machine. Some actual machines knows 
already that, and can justified that If there are machine (and from outside we can know 
this to correct) then the 1p-truth is not codable.  The 1p truth are more related to the 
relation between belief and reality (not necessarily physical reality, except for 
observation and sensation).


Even the simple, and apparently formal Bp & p is NOT codable.
Most truth about machine, including some that they can know, are not codable.
Many things true about us is not codable either.


Let me see if I understand that.  I think you are saying that p, i.e. that "p" describes a 
fact about the world, a meta-level above the coding of a machine.  That the Mars Rover 
believes it is south of it's landing point is implicit in its state and might be inferred 
from its behavior, but there is no part of the state corresponding to "I *believe* I am 
south of my landing point."  One could include such second-level states (which one might 
want to communicate to Pasadena) but then that state would be just another first-level 
state. Right?


Brent

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Re: Semantic vs logical truth

2012-12-02 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 02 Dec 2012, at 13:11, Roger Clough wrote:


Hi Bruno Marchal

Semantic truth I think is 1p (personal, private) truth,


Truth is always semantical, and it can be 3p (it usually is).
Subjective truth, like with feeling, sensations, ... is 1p, but it is  
only a personal relative view on something bigger. You might be  
conflating God and the inner God, somehow.


Semantic is a sub-branch of mathematical logic, usually known as model  
theory.


Note that logician use "model" in the sense of the painters. the model  
is the reality, not the theory used to describe the reality. Logicians  
studied explicitly the relation between theories and their models.


The 1p comes when *some* representable beliefs are true. A bit like  
when you plunge a map in the territory described by the map: there  
will be a fixed point which is the same in the territory and in  
reality (the famous: "you are here" point).





which mnakes it contingent, while logical truth is necessary


Even logical truth can be said contingent on the logic chosen. There  
are many logics. Now for a platonist, classical logic is single out,  
but not as the most true one, but as the one which is the simpler to  
make sense on ... the other logics.





as well as public or 3p truth. I think
comnputers have problems with 1p truth because
for one thing the coding is done by someone outside.


The 1p truth of the machine is not coded in the machine. Some actual  
machines knows already that, and can justified that If there are  
machine (and from outside we can know this to correct) then the 1p- 
truth is not codable.  The 1p truth are more related to the relation  
between belief and reality (not necessarily physical reality, except  
for observation and sensation).


Even the simple, and apparently formal Bp & p is NOT codable.
Most truth about machine, including some that they can know, are not  
codable.

Many things true about us is not codable either.

Bruno





[Roger Clough], [rclo...@verizon.net]
12/2/2012
"Forever is a long time, especially near the end." -Woody Allen

- Receiving the following content -
From: Bruno Marchal
Receiver: everything-list
Time: 2012-12-02, 04:07:39
Subject: Re: Numbers in the Platonic Realm


On 30 Nov 2012, at 21:28, meekerdb wrote:


On 11/30/2012 10:02 AM, Roger Clough wrote:


And a transcendent truth could be arithmetic truth or
the truth of necessary logic.


True in logic and formal mathematics is just marker "T" that is  
preserved by the rules of inference.


This makes no sense. You confuse the propositional constant T, with  
the semantical notion of truth. The first is expressible/definable  
formally (indeed by T, or by "0 = 0" in arithmetic), the second is  
not (Tarski theorem). When we say that truth is preserved by the  
rules of inference, we are concerned with the second notion.




In applications it is interpreted as if it were the correspondence  
meaning of 'true'.


Like in arithmetic. Truth of "ExP(x)" means that it exists a n such  
that P(n), at the "metalevel", which is the bare level in logic  
(that explains many confusion).





  But like all applications of mathematics, it may be only  
approximate.


Yes, but for arithmetic it is pretty clear, as we share our  
intuition on the so-called standard finite numbers.


Bruno


http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/




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Re: Semantic vs logical truth

2012-12-02 Thread Richard Ruquist
Roger,
Computers will do 1p truth when their results become emergent
in which case they will be doing the coding as well so to speak.
Richard

On Sun, Dec 2, 2012 at 7:11 AM, Roger Clough  wrote:
> Hi Bruno Marchal
>
> Semantic truth I think is 1p (personal, private) truth,
> which mnakes it contingent, while logical truth is necessary
> as well as public or 3p truth. I think
> comnputers have problems with 1p truth because
> for one thing the coding is done by someone outside.
>
>
> [Roger Clough], [rclo...@verizon.net]
> 12/2/2012
> "Forever is a long time, especially near the end." -Woody Allen
>
>
> - Receiving the following content -
> From: Bruno Marchal
> Receiver: everything-list
> Time: 2012-12-02, 04:07:39
> Subject: Re: Numbers in the Platonic Realm
>
>
> On 30 Nov 2012, at 21:28, meekerdb wrote:
>
> On 11/30/2012 10:02 AM, Roger Clough wrote:
>
> And a transcendent truth could be arithmetic truth or
> the truth of necessary logic.
>
>
> True in logic and formal mathematics is just marker "T" that is preserved by
> the rules of inference.
>
>
> This makes no sense. You confuse the propositional constant T, with the
> semantical notion of truth. The first is expressible/definable formally
> (indeed by T, or by "0 = 0" in arithmetic), the second is not (Tarski
> theorem). When we say that truth is preserved by the rules of inference, we
> are concerned with the second notion.
>
>
>
> In applications it is interpreted as if it were the correspondence meaning
> of 'true'.
>
>
> Like in arithmetic. Truth of "ExP(x)" means that it exists a n such that
> P(n), at the "metalevel", which is the bare level in logic (that explains
> many confusion).
>
>
>
>
>   But like all applications of mathematics, it may be only approximate.
>
>
> Yes, but for arithmetic it is pretty clear, as we share our intuition on the
> so-called standard finite numbers.
>
> Bruno
>
>
> http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/
>
>
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Semantic vs logical truth

2012-12-02 Thread Roger Clough
Hi Bruno Marchal 

Semantic truth I think is 1p (personal, private) truth,
which mnakes it contingent, while logical truth is necessary
as well as public or 3p truth. I think
comnputers have problems with 1p truth because
for one thing the coding is done by someone outside.


[Roger Clough], [rclo...@verizon.net]
12/2/2012 
"Forever is a long time, especially near the end." -Woody Allen

- Receiving the following content - 
From: Bruno Marchal 
Receiver: everything-list 
Time: 2012-12-02, 04:07:39
Subject: Re: Numbers in the Platonic Realm




On 30 Nov 2012, at 21:28, meekerdb wrote:


On 11/30/2012 10:02 AM, Roger Clough wrote: 
And a transcendent truth could be arithmetic truth or
the truth of necessary logic. 

True in logic and formal mathematics is just marker "T" that is preserved by 
the rules of inference.  


This makes no sense. You confuse the propositional constant T, with the 
semantical notion of truth. The first is expressible/definable formally (indeed 
by T, or by "0 = 0" in arithmetic), the second is not (Tarski theorem). When we 
say that truth is preserved by the rules of inference, we are concerned with 
the second notion.






In applications it is interpreted as if it were the correspondence meaning of 
'true'.


Like in arithmetic. Truth of "ExP(x)" means that it exists a n such that P(n), 
at the "metalevel", which is the bare level in logic (that explains many 
confusion).








  But like all applications of mathematics, it may be only approximate.



Yes, but for arithmetic it is pretty clear, as we share our intuition on the 
so-called standard finite numbers.


Bruno




http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/

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