Neil Killeen wrote: > > G'day all > > I am in need of some of your cyber cleverness again. > > I have a note which is tied from the last beat of > bar 1 to the first beat of bar 2. Its lyric > needs to span the bar line and be sung to one syllable. > > I cannot convince MTx that this is a good thing. > The usual "----" that is used to indicate a syllable > spanning multiple beats does not appear, the next > words starts a beat early and the ?? of course appears at the end. > > Here is a code fragment to show what i mean > > Style: Singer > Meter: 4/4 > > d4 d8 d d d ( d4 > L: dum dum de dah de span > > d8 ) e8 e e e2 > L: do do do dooooo > > so the 'span' word is the tied one. The first 'do' > of bar 2 should be the second beat. > > The best I have managed to do is poke in a blank lyric > in the first beat of the second bar so that the lyrics > line up but then of course the singer will be confused > about the tie not showing in the lyric. > > Hope i have been clear.
As far as I understand your question I'm not able to reproduce your problem. The span line does go to the first _note_ of bar 2. However, since you want the syllable 'span' to go to the first _beat_ you'll want an extra 'blind' melisma slur: d4 d8 d d d (~ ( d4 L: dum dum de dah de span d8 ) e8 )~ e e e2 L: do do dooooo %L: do do do dooooo ... or do I misunderstand you? -- Christian Mondrup, Computer Programmer Scandiatransplant, Skejby Hospital, University Hospital of Aarhus Brendstrupgaardsvej, DK 8200 Aarhus N, Denmark Phone: +45 89 49 53 01 - http://www.scandiatransplant.org _______________________________________________ TeX-music mailing list [EMAIL PROTECTED] http://sunsite.dk/mailman/listinfo/tex-music
